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An elderly patient must be physically restrained. Who is responsible for the patient's safety?
- A. The nurse assigned to care for the patient
- B. Unlicensed assistive personnel who apply the restraint
- C. Family member who agrees to application of the restraint
- D. Health care provider who prescribed application of restraint
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The nurse assigned to care for the patient. The nurse is responsible for the patient's safety because they are the primary caregiver and have the training and knowledge to ensure proper application of restraints, monitor the patient's condition, and respond to any potential complications. Unlicensed assistive personnel (choice B) may apply restraints under the nurse's supervision but do not have the same level of training or accountability. Family members (choice C) and healthcare providers (choice D) may be involved in the decision-making process, but ultimate responsibility for patient safety lies with the nurse who directly cares for the patient.
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A nurse is working with a family with an elderly family member who is in the predisgnostic phase of Alzheimer disease. The most important nursing intervention at this time would be to provide:
- A. family consultation to facilitate communication.
- B. information about support groups and counseling.
- C. options directed toward the reduction of caregiver stress.
- D. educational materials that help them understand their situation.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because educating the family about Alzheimer's disease in the predisgnostic phase helps them understand what to expect and how to cope effectively. This empowers them to make informed decisions and provide appropriate care. Option A focuses on communication, which is important but not the most critical intervention at this stage. Option B is helpful but may not address the family's immediate needs. Option C addresses caregiver stress, which is important but may not be the priority in the predisgnostic phase. Therefore, providing educational materials is the most important intervention to support the family during this phase.
A 17-year-old client is admitted to the ED after being alternately hyperalert and difficult to arouse. His symptoms all started within the last few hours, during which time he became disoriented and confused. His behavior was agitated and restless, and his memory was impaired, especially for recent events. The client displayed some delusions and misinterpretations of his surroundings. The nurse knows she needs to assess the client further for:
- A. Dementia
- B. Depression
- C. Delirium
- D. Amnesia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Delirium. Delirium is characterized by acute and fluctuating changes in cognition, attention, and awareness. The client's sudden onset of symptoms, including disorientation, confusion, agitation, restlessness, impaired memory, delusions, and misinterpretations of surroundings, align with the hallmark features of delirium. The nurse needs to further assess the client for delirium to determine the underlying cause and provide appropriate interventions promptly.
Incorrect choices:
A: Dementia - Dementia is a chronic, progressive condition characterized by gradual cognitive decline. The client's acute onset of symptoms is not consistent with dementia.
B: Depression - Depression typically presents with persistent feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and loss of interest, which are different from the acute and fluctuating cognitive changes seen in delirium.
D: Amnesia - Amnesia refers to memory loss, which is only one aspect of the client's presentation. Delirium involves a broader range of cognitive
When coping with a patient's inappropriate expression of anger, a psychiatric-mental health nurse's initial action is to identify the:
- A. appropriate limit-setting techniques
- B. nurse's own response to the anger
- C. patient's specific defense mechanisms
- D. systems theory for effecting change
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Understanding the nurse's own emotional response ensures objectivity and effective management of the patient's anger.
A 72-year-old patient has the medical diagnosis of delirium secondary to anticholinergic medication toxicity. Family members are very anxious and express their concerns about placing the patient in a nursing home. What information should serve as a basis for the nurse's reply?
- A. Delirium is reversible, and the patient will likely recover.
- B. The symptoms are related to depression, which can be treated.
- C. Delirium usually progresses to dementia, which is usually permanent.
- D. Home care should be attempted; a nursing home should be the last resort.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
1. Delirium is an acute, reversible condition caused by underlying factors like medication toxicity.
2. By addressing the anticholinergic medication toxicity, the delirium can be resolved, leading to recovery.
3. The patient's age does not necessarily indicate a progression to dementia.
4. Placing the patient in a nursing home is not the immediate solution; resolving the toxicity should be the priority.
Summary:
Choice A is correct because delirium is reversible with appropriate treatment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the underlying cause of delirium or provide accurate information about its progression or management.
Which of the following is classified as a mood disorder?
- A. bipolar disorder
- B. multiple personality disorder
- C. delusional disorder
- D. dissociative disorder
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Bipolar disorder, with its mood swings, is a classic mood disorder.