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An example of a first-dose reaction that may occur includes:
- A. Orthostatic hypotension that does not occur with repeated doses
- B. Purple glove syndrome with phenytoin use
- C. Hemolytic anemia from ceftriaxone use
- D. Contact dermatitis from neomycin use
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is correct because orthostatic hypotension can occur with a first dose of drugs like antihypertensives, subsiding as the body adjusts, a classic first-dose reaction. Choice B is incorrect as purple glove syndrome is a rare phenytoin effect, not first-dose specific. Choice C is wrong because hemolytic anemia is a type II reaction, not first-dose. Choice D is incorrect since contact dermatitis is a delayed, not first-dose, reaction.
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Genetic testing prior to prescribing which drug could prevent serious adverse drug reactions?
- A. Acetaminophen
- B. Codeine
- C. Albuterol
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is correct because genetic testing for CYP2D6 variants can prevent ADRs with codeine; poor metabolizers get no pain relief, while ultrarapid metabolizers risk morphine toxicity. Choice A is incorrect as acetaminophen metabolism isn't strongly tied to genetic variants causing serious ADRs. Choice C is wrong because albuterol's inhaled use has minimal genetic metabolism risks. Choice D is incorrect since only codeine benefits significantly from pre-prescribing genetic testing.
Signs of controlled substance misuse include:
- A. Requesting early refills
- B. Reporting lost prescriptions
- C. Using multiple prescribers
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Choice D is correct because early refills, lost prescription claims, and multiple prescribers are classic misuse signs, per DEA and clinical red flags. Choice A is incorrect alone as it's one sign. Choice B is wrong by itself because lost reports are just part. Choice C is incorrect solo since multiple prescribers is only one indicator.
Women who are prescribed drugs that are known teratogens should:
- A. Use effective contraception
- B. Avoid breastfeeding
- C. Increase their vitamin intake
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is correct because teratogenic drugs can harm a fetus, so effective contraception is essential to prevent pregnancy during treatment, per safety guidelines. Choice B is incorrect as breastfeeding avoidance applies post-delivery, not during prescribing. Choice C is wrong because increasing vitamins doesn't mitigate teratogenic risk. Choice D is incorrect since only contraception directly addresses the primary risk.
The elderly are at high risk of ADRs due to:
- A. Having greater muscle mass than younger adults, leading to higher volume of distribution
- B. The extensive studies that have been conducted on drug safety in this age group
- C. The blood-brain barrier being less permeable, requiring higher doses to achieve therapeutic effect
- D. Age-related decrease in renal function
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Choice D is correct because an age-related decline in renal function slows drug excretion, increasing ADR risk as drugs accumulate. Choice A is incorrect as muscle mass decreases with age, not increases. Choice B is wrong because studies are often limited in the elderly, not extensive. Choice C is incorrect since the blood-brain barrier's permeability doesn't typically lessen, and higher doses aren't standard.
A patient is taking drug A and drug B. The primary care NP notes increased effects of drug B. The NP should suspect that in this case drug A is a cytochrome P450 (CYP450) enzyme:
- A. inhibitor.
- B. substrate.
- C. inducer.
- D. metabolizer.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a CYP450 inhibitor (drug A) reduces metabolism of drug B, increasing its effects. Choice B is incorrect as a substrate is acted upon, not inhibiting. Choice C is wrong since an inducer increases metabolism, reducing effects. Choice D is inaccurate as 'metabolizer' isn’t a CYP450 role.