Nokea
An infant delivered prematurely at 28 weeks' gestation weighs 1200 g. Based on this information the infant is classified as
- A. SG
- B. VLBW.
- C. ELBW.
- D. low birth weight at term.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: VLBW (Very Low Birth Weight). This classification is based on the infant weighing less than 1500 g at birth, which applies to this scenario as the infant weighs 1200 g. VLBW infants are at higher risk for complications due to their low weight and prematurity.
A: SG (Small for Gestational Age) is incorrect because it refers to infants who are below the 10th percentile for weight at a specific gestational age, not based solely on weight.
C: ELBW (Extremely Low Birth Weight) is incorrect as it typically refers to infants weighing less than 1000 g at birth, which is lower than the infant in this scenario.
D: Low birth weight at term is incorrect as it does not accurately classify a premature infant like the one in the question.
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The nurse is present in the delivery room when a mother is told her neonate was stillborn. The mother begins to wail loudly and pull at her hair. Which action does the nurse take?
- A. Allow the mother to express grief in her own way.
- B. Attempt to calm the mother and prevent self-harm.
- C. Ask for a sedative to calm the mother’s reaction.
- D. Ask a family member to comfort the mother.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Allow the mother to express grief in her own way. The nurse should prioritize the mother's emotional needs by providing a safe space for her to express her grief. This can help the mother process her emotions and begin the grieving process. Option B may come across as dismissive of the mother's feelings and could hinder her emotional healing. Option C with sedatives may suppress the mother's natural grieving process and is not recommended unless absolutely necessary. Option D is not appropriate as the nurse should be present to support the mother directly.
Which clinical sign is most concerning immediately following the delivery of a high-risk neonate?
- A. Axillary temperature of 97.8°F
- B. Blood glucose of 35 g/dL
- C. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- D. Blue-tinged hands and feet
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Blood glucose of 35 g/dL. This is the most concerning sign as hypoglycemia in neonates can lead to serious neurological complications. Low blood glucose levels can result in seizures, brain damage, and even death if not promptly addressed. It is crucial to maintain appropriate blood glucose levels in neonates to support their brain development and overall health.
Explanation of other choices:
A: Axillary temperature of 97.8°F - Slightly below normal but not immediately concerning.
C: Oxygen saturation of 90% - Suboptimal but not as critical as severe hypoglycemia.
D: Blue-tinged hands and feet - Could indicate poor circulation, but hypoglycemia is more urgent to address.
Whose baby is at highest risk of developing jaundice based on risk factors?
- A. A 16-year-old mother who labored with Pitocin and had an uncomplicated delivery.
- B. A 23-year-old mother who made it to the hospital after a delivery at home, umbilical cord cut at the hospital.
- C. A 28-year-old mother with type A blood and a father with O+ blood type delivered a newborn with nuchal cord x2; forceps used
- D. A 30-year-old mother who delivered twins via cesarean section; newborn A was breech; father unknown
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the newborn has both type A blood (from the mother) and O+ blood (from the father), leading to a higher risk of jaundice due to ABO incompatibility. The presence of nuchal cord x2 and the use of forceps during delivery also increase the risk of newborn jaundice.
Choice A is incorrect because the mother's age and use of Pitocin do not inherently increase the risk of jaundice. Choice B is incorrect because the baby being born at home and the timing of the umbilical cord cutting are not directly related to jaundice risk. Choice D is incorrect because the method of delivery and the father's unknown blood type do not specifically indicate a high risk of jaundice compared to the scenario in Choice C.
Which patient should be assessed first?
- A. Infant with a blood glucose level of 45 mg/dL, maternal history of gestational diabetes
- B. Infant who is plotted on the growth chart between the 75th and 85th percentile for weight and length and the 50th percentile for head circumference
- C. Infant born at 42 weeks gestation to 40-year-old mother who was otherwise healthy during pregnancy and at the time of delivery
- D. Infant born at 38 weeks gestation with a green stain and bruising noted on initial assessment at delivery
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. An infant with a blood glucose level of 45 mg/dL and a maternal history of gestational diabetes should be assessed first to rule out hypoglycemia, which can be life-threatening in newborns. Hypoglycemia can lead to seizures, brain damage, or even death if not promptly treated. Infants born to mothers with gestational diabetes are at higher risk for hypoglycemia due to their own insulin production in response to high maternal glucose levels. Therefore, immediate assessment and intervention are crucial.
Choice B is incorrect because growth parameters within normal ranges do not indicate an immediate need for assessment. Choice C is also incorrect as the mother's age and gestational age do not necessarily indicate an urgent need for assessment. Choice D is incorrect as the presence of a green stain and bruising may indicate meconium aspiration syndrome, but hypoglycemia poses a more immediate threat to the infant's health.
The nurse has access to the results of a karyotype sent out for their patient via an electronic medical record. The parents have accessed the results on their MyChart phone application and have asked the nurse what the results 45, X mean. What is the best response from the nurse?
- A. The results indicate your child may have Turner syndrome.
- B. Your results are 45, X; you will have to wait to talk with the geneticist.
- C. Your results indicate that your daughter has a serious lifelong disease.
- D. I’m not sure; I’ll call the provider.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The results indicate your child may have Turner syndrome. This is the best response because 45, X is the karyotype typically associated with Turner syndrome, a genetic condition where a female is missing part or all of one X chromosome. This response shows the nurse's knowledge of genetics and ability to interpret karyotype results accurately.
Summary of incorrect choices:
B: Your results are 45, X; you will have to wait to talk with the geneticist - This response delays providing crucial information to the parents and does not address their immediate concerns.
C: Your results indicate that your daughter has a serious lifelong disease - This choice is too vague and alarming, lacking specificity about the condition associated with the karyotype results.
D: I’m not sure; I’ll call the provider - This response shows a lack of knowledge on the nurse's part and does not offer any immediate information or reassurance to the parents.