Nokea
An infant is brought to the clinic by his mother, who has noticed that he holds his head in an unusual position and always faces to one side. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
- A. Torticollis, with shortening of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
- B. Craniosynostosis, with premature closure of the cranial sutures
- C. Plagiocephaly, with flattening of one side of the head
- D. Hydrocephalus, with increased head size
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is torticollis, characterized by the shortening of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, limiting the range of motion of the neck and causing the chin to point to the opposing side. Craniosynostosis is the premature closure of cranial sutures, leading to an abnormal head shape but not necessarily affecting head position. Plagiocephaly is flattening of one side of the head due to external forces or positioning, not muscle shortening. Hydrocephalus presents with an increased head size due to the accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid, not with a fixed head position.
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When should discharge training and planning begin for a 65-year-old man admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery?
- A. Following surgery
- B. Upon admission
- C. Within 48 hours of discharge
- D. Preoperative discussion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Discharge training and planning should begin upon admission for a patient undergoing spinal stenosis surgery. It is crucial to initiate this process early to ensure a smooth transition from hospital care to home or a rehabilitation facility. Starting discharge planning upon admission allows for comprehensive involvement of the patient, family, and healthcare team, which can reduce the risk of readmission, optimize recovery, ensure proper medication management, and adequately prepare caregivers. Therefore, option B, 'Upon admission,' is the correct answer. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting until after surgery, within 48 hours of discharge, or during preoperative discussion would not provide sufficient time for effective discharge planning and education.
The nurse practicing in a maternity setting recognizes that the postmature fetus is at risk due to:
- A. Excessive fetal weight
- B. Low blood sugar levels
- C. Depletion of subcutaneous fat
- D. Progressive placental insufficiency
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A postmature or postterm pregnancy occurs when a pregnancy exceeds the typical term of 38 to 42 weeks. In this situation, the fetus is at risk due to progressive placental insufficiency. This occurs because the placenta loses its ability to function effectively after 42 weeks. The accumulation of calcium deposits in the placenta reduces blood perfusion, oxygen supply, and nutrient delivery to the fetus, leading to potential growth problems. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because excessive fetal weight, low blood sugar levels, and depletion of subcutaneous fat are not the primary risks associated with postmature fetuses. The main concern lies in the compromised placental function and its impact on fetal well-being.
A nonimmunized child appears at the clinic with a visible rash. Which of the following observations indicates the child may have rubeola (measles)?
- A. Small blue-white spots are visible on the oral mucosa.
- B. The rash begins on the trunk and spreads outward.
- C. There is low-grade fever.
- D. The lesions have a "teardrop-on-a-rose-petal"? appearance.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presence of small blue-white spots on the oral mucosa, known as Koplik's spots, is characteristic of measles (rubeola) infection. These spots typically appear on the buccal mucosa opposite the second molars, 1-2 days before the rash onset, and last until 2 days after the rash appears. While Koplik's spots are pathognomonic for measles, their absence does not rule out the diagnosis. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the rash pattern, presence of low-grade fever, and characteristic appearance of lesions are not specific indicators of measles infection.
A new mother has some questions about phenylketonuria (PKU). Which of the following statements made by a nurse is not correct regarding PKU?
- A. A Guthrie test can check the necessary lab values.
- B. The urine has a high concentration of phenylpyruvic acid
- C. Mental deficits are often present with PKU
- D. The effects of PKU are reversible
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an inherited disorder that increases the levels of phenylalanine (a building block of proteins) in the blood. If PKU is not treated, phenylalanine can build up to harmful levels in the body, causing intellectual disability and other serious health problems. The signs and symptoms of PKU vary from mild to severe. The most severe form of this disorder is known as classic PKU. Infants with classic PKU appear normal until they are a few months old. Without treatment, these children develop a permanent intellectual disability. Seizures, delayed development, behavioral problems, and psychiatric disorders are also common. Untreated individuals may have a musty or mouse-like odor as a side effect of excess phenylalanine in the body. Children with classic PKU tend to have lighter skin and hair than unaffected family members and are also likely to have skin disorders such as eczema. The effects of PKU stay with the infant throughout their life (via Genetic Home Reference).
An adolescent brings a physician's note to school stating that he is not to participate in sports due to a diagnosis of Osgood-Schlatter disease. Which of the following statements about the disease is correct?
- A. The condition is not caused by the student's competitive swimming schedule.
- B. The student will most likely not require surgical intervention.
- C. The student experiences pain in the inferior aspect of the knee.
- D. The student is not trying to avoid participation in physical education.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Osgood-Schlatter disease occurs in adolescents during the rapid growth phase when the infrapatellar ligament of the quadriceps muscle pulls on the tibial tubercle, causing pain and swelling in the inferior aspect of the knee. The condition is commonly caused by activities that require repeated use of the quadriceps, such as track and soccer. Choice A is incorrect because Osgood-Schlatter disease is not specifically linked to competitive swimming. Choice B is incorrect as surgical intervention is not usually necessary for this condition. Choice D is incorrect as the student is not trying to avoid physical education but is restricted from participating in sports due to the diagnosis of Osgood-Schlatter disease.