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An older adult man recently diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with shortness of breath. The nurse observes the client sitting upright and leaning over the bedside table, using accessory muscles to assist in breathing. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Assist the client to a high Fowler's position in bed
- B. Observe the client for the presence of a barrel chest
- C. Prepare to transfer the client to a critical care unit
- D. Instruct the client in pursed lip breathing techniques
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pursed lip breathing helps reduce dyspnea and improves oxygenation in clients with COPD.
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A previously well 3½-month-old presents with poor feeding, diaphoresis during feeding, and poor growth. Vital signs reveal respirations of 70, pulse of 175, and blood pressure of 90/65 mm Hg in the upper and lower extremities. The cardiac examination reveals a palpable parasternal lift and a systolic thrill. A grade 4 holosystolic murmur and a mid-diastolic rumble are noted. The chest radiograph reveals cardiomegaly. The most likely diagnosis is
- A. cardiomyopathy
- B. myocarditis
- C. VSD
- D. coarctation of the aorta
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The presentation suggests a large ventricular septal defect (VSD) causing significant left-to-right shunting and heart failure.
A nurse is teaching nursing students the physiology of congenital heart defects. Which defect results in decreased pulmonary blood flow?
- A. Atrial septal defect
- B. Tetralogy of Fallot
- C. Ventricular septal defect
- D. Patent ductus arteriosus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tetralogy of Fallot results in decreased blood flow to the lungs. The pulmonic stenosis increases the pressure in the right ventricle, causing the blood to go from right to left across the ventricular septal defect. Atrial and ventricular septal defects and patent ductus arteriosus result in increased pulmonary blood flow.
Hemodynamic definition of 'Isolated post-capillary Pulmonary Hypertension' is
- A. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure > 15 mm Hg
- B. Right ventricular systolic pressure > 36 mm Hg
- C. Diastolic pressure gradient < 7 mm Hg
- D. Pulmonary vascular resistance > 3 Wood units
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Isolated post-capillary pulmonary hypertension is defined by a pulmonary artery wedge pressure greater than 15 mm Hg.
The parent of a 1-year-old child with tetralogy of Fallot asks the nurse, “Why do my child’s fingertips look like that?†On what understanding does the nurse base a response?
- A. Clubbing occurs as a result of untreated congestive heart failure.
- B. Clubbing occurs as a result of a left-to-right shunting of blood.
- C. Clubbing occurs as a result of decreased cardiac output.
- D. Clubbing occurs as a result of chronic hypoxia.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Clubbing of the fingers develops in response to chronic hypoxia.
All patients with clinical evidence of a PDA are at increased risk for endocarditis. As a result, patients with PDA should be considered for irreversible closure EXCEPT
- A. small, hemodynamically insignificant PDA
- B. small, hemodynamically significant PDA
- C. moderate PDA
- D. large PDA
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Small, hemodynamically insignificant PDAs may not require closure.