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An older adult with a diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease has been experiencing fecal incontinence, with no recent change in stool character noted by the nurse. What is the nurse's most appropriate intervention?
- A. Keep a food diary to identify foods that worsen the client's symptoms
- B. Provide the client with a bland, low-residue diet
- C. Toilet the client on a frequent, scheduled basis
- D. Collaborate with the primary provider to secure an order for loperamide
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Toilet the client on a frequent, scheduled basis. This intervention is appropriate for managing fecal incontinence in individuals with Alzheimer's disease. By establishing a routine for toileting, the nurse can help the client maintain continence and reduce the risk of accidents. This approach also promotes dignity and independence for the client.
A: Keeping a food diary may be helpful for identifying triggers of fecal incontinence, but it is not the most immediate intervention in this case.
B: Providing a bland, low-residue diet may not directly address the issue of fecal incontinence and may not be necessary if there has been no recent change in stool character.
D: Securing an order for loperamide may be appropriate in some cases, but it is not the first-line intervention for managing fecal incontinence in this scenario.
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A client reports recent exposure to hepatitis A. What is a common mode of transmission for this virus?
- A. Blood transfusion
- B. Fecal-oral route
- C. Needle sharing
- D. Sexual contact
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fecal-oral route. Hepatitis A is commonly transmitted through ingestion of contaminated food or water. The virus is present in the feces of infected individuals and can be spread through inadequate sanitation practices. Blood transfusion (A) is not a common mode of transmission for hepatitis A. Needle sharing (C) is more associated with hepatitis B and C transmission. Sexual contact (D) is not a primary mode of transmission for hepatitis A. In summary, the fecal-oral route is the most common mode of transmission for hepatitis A due to contamination of food or water with the virus.
A 30-year-old woman presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
- B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
- C. Diabetes insipidus
- D. Hyperthyroidism
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Symptoms of fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia point to diabetes.
Step 2: Hyperglycemia and ketonuria suggest uncontrolled diabetes.
Step 3: Onset in a 30-year-old woman is more common in Type 1 diabetes.
Step 4: Type 1 diabetes is characterized by autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells leading to insulin deficiency.
Step 5: Treatment for Type 1 diabetes involves insulin therapy.
Summary:
- Choice B (Type 2 diabetes) is less likely due to the acute presentation and ketonuria.
- Choice C (Diabetes insipidus) does not involve hyperglycemia or ketonuria.
- Choice D (Hyperthyroidism) does not typically present with hyperglycemia and ketonuria.
A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value indicates a therapeutic effect of the medication?
- A. INR of 2.5.
- B. PTT of 45 seconds.
- C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
- D. Platelet count of 150,000/mm³.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: INR of 2.5. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. A target INR range for DVT treatment is typically 2.0-3.0. An INR of 2.5 indicates that the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range, preventing excessive clotting while avoiding excessive bleeding.
B: PTT measures the effectiveness of heparin, not warfarin.
C: Hemoglobin level and D: Platelet count are not specific indicators of warfarin's therapeutic effect on clotting factors.
In summary, the correct answer A is the most relevant laboratory value for monitoring the therapeutic effect of warfarin in a client with DVT.
A client has been diagnosed with an esophageal diverticulum after undergoing diagnostic imaging. When taking the health history, the nurse should expect the client to describe what sign or symptom?
- A. Burning pain on swallowing
- B. Regurgitation of undigested food
- C. Symptoms mimicking a myocardial infarction
- D. Chronic parotid abscesses
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer B (Regurgitation of undigested food):
1. Esophageal diverticulum is a pouch-like protrusion in the esophageal wall, causing difficulty in swallowing.
2. Due to the diverticulum, food may get trapped and regurgitated, leading to regurgitation of undigested food.
3. This symptom is characteristic of esophageal diverticulum and indicates an abnormality in the esophageal functioning.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Burning pain on swallowing - Not a typical symptom of esophageal diverticulum; more indicative of conditions like GERD.
C: Symptoms mimicking a myocardial infarction - Unrelated to esophageal diverticulum and more suggestive of cardiac issues.
D: Chronic parotid abscesses - Not associated with esophageal diverticulum, as parotid abscesses involve the salivary glands.
A client has developed hepatic encephalopathy secondary to cirrhosis and is receiving care on the medical unit. The client's current medication regimen includes lactulose four times daily. What desired outcome should the nurse relate to this pharmacologic intervention?
- A. Two to three soft bowel movements daily
- B. Significant increase in appetite and food intake
- C. Absence of nausea and vomiting
- D. Absence of blood or mucus in stool
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Two to three soft bowel movements daily. Lactulose is a laxative commonly used to manage hepatic encephalopathy by reducing ammonia levels through promoting bowel movements. The desired outcome of this medication is to prevent the buildup of ammonia in the bloodstream, which can exacerbate hepatic encephalopathy. Soft bowel movements indicate that the medication is effectively promoting bowel motility and reducing ammonia levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as lactulose is not directly associated with increasing appetite, resolving nausea and vomiting, or eliminating blood or mucus in the stool in this context.