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An older client with a long history of coronary artery disease, HTN, and HF arrives in the ED in respiratory distress. The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide IV. Which therapeutic response to furosemide should the nurse expect in the client with acute HF?
- A. Decreased heart rate
- B. Improved blood pressure
- C. Increased urine output
- D. Reduced preload
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduced preload. Furosemide is a diuretic that reduces fluid overload in heart failure, which lowers the preload (the volume of blood in the ventricles before contraction). By reducing this volume, furosemide improves symptoms of heart failure. While furosemide may lead to increased urine output and lower blood pressure, these effects are secondary to the reduction in preload. Decreased heart rate is not a direct effect of furosemide in heart failure.
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A client with diabetes mellitus is scheduled for surgery. What is the nurse's priority action when preparing this client for surgery?
- A. Ensure the client is NPO before surgery
- B. Monitor the client's blood glucose levels
- C. Administer the client's insulin as scheduled
- D. Teach the client about postoperative care
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor the client's blood glucose levels. Clients with diabetes are at risk for perioperative complications related to blood glucose fluctuations. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to maintaining proper management before, during, and after surgery. Option A is not the priority action as ensuring NPO status is a standard preoperative procedure for all clients. Option C could be important but is secondary to monitoring blood glucose levels. Option D is important but not the priority during the preoperative phase.
A client with cirrhosis develops ascites. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Administer diuretics as prescribed.
- B. Restrict fluid intake to manage fluid overload.
- C. Position the client in Fowler's position and assess for respiratory distress.
- D. Measure the client's abdominal girth daily.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Restrict fluid intake to manage fluid overload. In a client with cirrhosis developing ascites, the priority intervention is to restrict fluid intake. This helps manage fluid overload, prevent further complications, such as respiratory distress or kidney impairment, and reduce the accumulation of ascitic fluid. Administering diuretics may be a part of the treatment plan, but the primary focus should be on fluid restriction. Positioning the client in Fowler's position and measuring the abdominal girth are important interventions but not the priority when managing ascites in cirrhosis.
A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed a low-sodium diet. What is the nurse's priority teaching?
- A. Choose fresh fruits and vegetables.
- B. Restrict fluid intake to 1500 mL per day.
- C. Limit sodium intake to 2 grams per day.
- D. Increase potassium intake to prevent hypokalemia.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Limit sodium intake to 2 grams per day.' For a client with chronic kidney disease, limiting sodium intake is crucial because it helps prevent fluid retention and reduces the workload on the kidneys. Choice A, 'Choose fresh fruits and vegetables,' is generally a healthy dietary recommendation but not the priority when focusing on a low-sodium diet. Choice B, 'Restrict fluid intake to 1500 mL per day,' is important but secondary to limiting sodium intake. Choice D, 'Increase potassium intake to prevent hypokalemia,' is not the priority teaching for a client with chronic kidney disease on a low-sodium diet.
A client with Crohn's disease reports diarrhea. What intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Instruct the client to drink clear fluids and avoid solid foods.
- B. Administer antidiarrheal medication as prescribed.
- C. Encourage a high-fiber diet and regular physical activity.
- D. Restrict fluid intake and monitor electrolytes.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with Crohn's disease reporting diarrhea is to encourage a high-fiber diet and regular physical activity. A high-fiber diet helps manage diarrhea in Crohn's disease by adding bulk to the stool and promoting more regular bowel movements. Instructing the client to drink clear fluids and avoid solid foods (Choice A) may not be appropriate as it can further exacerbate diarrhea. Administering antidiarrheal medication (Choice B) without addressing the underlying cause may not be the best initial approach. Encouraging a high-fiber diet and physical activity (Choice C) is beneficial for managing symptoms. Restricting fluid intake and monitoring electrolytes (Choice D) is not recommended as it can lead to dehydration, which is a concern in clients with diarrhea.
The nurse assesses a 72-year-old client who was admitted for right-sided congestive heart failure. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate finding?
- A. Decreased urinary output
- B. Jugular vein distention
- C. Pleural effusion
- D. Bibasilar crackles
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct! In right-sided congestive heart failure, jugular vein distention is a common finding due to the backup of blood in the systemic circulation. This results in increased venous pressure, leading to jugular vein distention. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because decreased urinary output, pleural effusion, and bibasilar crackles are more commonly associated with other conditions such as kidney dysfunction, lung issues, and pulmonary edema.