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An older client with chronic emphysema is admitted to the emergency room with acute weakness, palpitations, and vomiting. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain during the initial interview?
- A. Recent compliance with prescribed medications.
- B. Sleep patterns during the previous few weeks.
- C. History of smoking over the past 6 months.
- D. Activity level prior to the onset of symptoms.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. In this scenario, the most critical information for the nurse to obtain during the initial interview is the recent compliance with prescribed medications. This is crucial to understand the client's baseline condition and management of chronic emphysema. Monitoring medication adherence can provide insights into potential exacerbating factors that may have led to the current acute symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are not as crucial in this situation. Sleep patterns, smoking history, and activity levels are important aspects of the client's overall health but do not take precedence over medication compliance when addressing acute symptoms in a client with chronic emphysema.
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An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports a weak pulse of 44 beats per minute in a client. What action should the charge nurse implement?
- A. Have the UAP recheck the pulse and report back.
- B. Have a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assess the client for apical-radial pulse deficit.
- C. Call the healthcare provider for further instructions.
- D. Immediately call the healthcare provider and prepare for transfer to critical care.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action is to have a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assess the client for an apical-radial pulse deficit. This assessment can provide further information about the client's cardiovascular status and help determine if further intervention is necessary. Having the UAP recheck the pulse may delay appropriate assessment and intervention. Calling the healthcare provider for further instructions may not be necessary at this point unless the LPN assessment indicates a need for it. Immediately transferring the client to critical care without further assessment is not warranted based solely on the initial report of a weak pulse.
A client is receiving treatment for glaucoma. Which class of medications is commonly used to decrease intraocular pressure?
- A. Anticholinergics
- B. Beta blockers
- C. Alpha blockers
- D. Diuretics
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Diuretics are commonly used to decrease intraocular pressure in clients with glaucoma. They work by reducing the production of aqueous humor in the eye or by increasing its outflow. Anticholinergics (Choice A) are not typically used in the treatment of glaucoma and can even increase intraocular pressure. Beta blockers (Choice B) are also commonly used in glaucoma treatment as they reduce aqueous humor production. Alpha blockers (Choice C) are not the first-line treatment for glaucoma and are not as commonly used as diuretics or beta blockers.
A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) reports frequent heartburn. What dietary modification should the nurse recommend?
- A. Avoid eating large meals late at night.
- B. Eat a high-fat diet to buffer stomach acid.
- C. Reduce fluid intake to prevent acid reflux.
- D. Consume spicy foods to neutralize stomach acid.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to recommend avoiding eating large meals late at night. This dietary modification can help reduce the risk of acid reflux, which can exacerbate GERD symptoms. Consuming smaller, more frequent meals is generally recommended to minimize pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter. Choice B is incorrect because a high-fat diet can worsen GERD symptoms by delaying stomach emptying. Choice C is incorrect because reducing fluid intake can lead to dehydration and will not prevent acid reflux. Choice D is incorrect because spicy foods can actually trigger or worsen acid reflux symptoms in individuals with GERD.
A client in labor is experiencing late decelerations in fetal heart rate. What intervention should the nurse perform first?
- A. Reposition the client onto her left side.
- B. Apply oxygen via nasal cannula.
- C. Prepare for an emergency cesarean section.
- D. Increase IV fluid administration to improve perfusion.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate fetal distress due to compromised placental perfusion. Repositioning the client onto her left side is the priority intervention as it can increase blood flow to the placenta, improving fetal oxygenation. Applying oxygen via nasal cannula (choice B) can be the next step after repositioning if late decelerations persist. Emergency cesarean section (choice C) is not the initial action for late decelerations unless other interventions are ineffective. Increasing IV fluid administration (choice D) is not the first-line intervention for late decelerations; repositioning takes precedence to address the underlying cause.
An older adult client with chronic emphysema is admitted to the emergency room with acute weakness, palpitations, and vomiting. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain during the initial interview?
- A. Recent compliance with prescribed medications.
- B. Sleep patterns during the previous few weeks.
- C. History of smoking over the past 6 months.
- D. Activity level prior to the onset of symptoms.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Recent compliance with prescribed medications. In a client with chronic emphysema experiencing acute symptoms, it is crucial to assess medication compliance as it directly impacts the management of the condition and could contribute to the current presentation. Ensuring that the client has been taking their prescribed medications can provide vital information to guide further treatment. Choices B, C, and D, although important in a comprehensive assessment, are not as immediately crucial as assessing medication compliance in this emergency situation.