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An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports a weak pulse of 44 beats per minute in a client. What action should the charge nurse implement?
- A. Have the UAP recheck the pulse and report back.
- B. Have a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assess the client for apical-radial pulse deficit.
- C. Call the healthcare provider for further instructions.
- D. Immediately call the healthcare provider and prepare for transfer to critical care.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action is to have a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assess the client for an apical-radial pulse deficit. This assessment can provide further information about the client's cardiovascular status and help determine if further intervention is necessary. Having the UAP recheck the pulse may delay appropriate assessment and intervention. Calling the healthcare provider for further instructions may not be necessary at this point unless the LPN assessment indicates a need for it. Immediately transferring the client to critical care without further assessment is not warranted based solely on the initial report of a weak pulse.
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The client is being taught about precautions with Coumadin therapy. The client should be instructed to avoid which over-the-counter medication?
- A. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
- B. Cough medicines containing guaifenesin
- C. Histamine blockers
- D. Laxatives containing magnesium salts
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). NSAIDs can increase the risk of bleeding in clients taking Coumadin, which is an anticoagulant medication. Avoiding NSAIDs helps prevent potentially dangerous interactions with Coumadin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Cough medicines with guaifenesin, histamine blockers, and laxatives containing magnesium salts do not typically have significant interactions with Coumadin therapy. Therefore, they are not the over-the-counter medications that the client needs to avoid while on Coumadin.
A client presents to the clinic with a large abscess on the right thigh. The healthcare provider incises and drains the abscess. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client upon discharge?
- A. Avoid showering until the wound is completely closed
- B. Perform daily wound care and dressing changes
- C. Apply heat to the wound for 15 minutes twice a day
- D. Take the prescribed antibiotic until the wound is fully healed
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: After incision and drainage of an abscess, it is crucial to perform daily wound care and dressing changes to prevent infection and promote healing. Avoiding showering until the wound is completely closed (choice A) may not be practical or necessary. Applying heat to the wound (choice C) can increase the risk of infection and delay healing. While taking the prescribed antibiotic (choice D) is important, wound care and dressing changes are more directly related to promoting healing and preventing complications.
A client with pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital. Which intervention has the highest priority?
- A. Monitor blood pressure frequently
- B. Start intravenous fluids at a fast rate
- C. Administer pain medication to reduce discomfort
- D. Give antihypertensive medications as prescribed
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Start intravenous fluids at a fast rate. In a client with pheochromocytoma, the highest priority intervention is to ensure adequate intravascular volume before initiating any other treatment. This helps prevent a sudden drop in blood pressure that can occur due to the release of catecholamines during tumor manipulation. While monitoring blood pressure frequently is essential, ensuring adequate intravascular volume takes precedence. Administering pain medication and antihypertensive medications are important but are not the highest priority in the initial management of pheochromocytoma.
Why is it important for the healthcare provider to monitor blood pressure in clients receiving antipsychotic drugs?
- A. Orthostatic hypotension is a common side effect.
- B. Most antipsychotic drugs cause elevated blood pressure.
- C. This provides information on the amount of sodium allowed in the diet.
- D. It will indicate the need to institute antiparkinsonian drugs.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Question: Monitoring blood pressure in clients receiving antipsychotic drugs is crucial because orthostatic hypotension is a common side effect. Orthostatic hypotension can lead to a sudden drop in blood pressure upon standing, increasing the risk of falls and related injuries. Therefore, regular blood pressure monitoring helps healthcare providers detect and manage this potential side effect.
Incorrect Choices Rationale:
- Choice B is incorrect because while antipsychotic drugs can have various side effects, causing elevated blood pressure is not a common effect associated with them.
- Choice C is unrelated to blood pressure monitoring in clients receiving antipsychotic drugs. Monitoring blood pressure in this context aims to detect and manage side effects of the medication, not to assess sodium intake.
- Choice D is incorrect as monitoring blood pressure in clients receiving antipsychotic drugs is primarily aimed at detecting orthostatic hypotension, not as an indicator for instituting antiparkinsonian drugs.
An adolescent client with meningococcal meningitis is receiving a continuous IV infusion of penicillin G. How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump to deliver?
- A. 83
- B. 85
- C. 87
- D. 90
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 83. The pharmacy provided the infusion at 10 million units per liter, which requires a rate of 83 mL/hour. To calculate this, multiply the dosage by the volume of the IV solution and divide by the concentration of the IV solution in million units: 10 million units per liter x 8.3 L = 83 mL/hour. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the calculation based on the given information.