Nokea
Antiviral agents that is/ are active against cytomegalovirus (CMV) include * which of the following?
- A. Ganciclovir
- B. Foscarnet
- C. Acyclovir
- D. (
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice A (Ganciclovir) being the correct answer:
1. Ganciclovir is a nucleoside analog that inhibits CMV DNA synthesis.
2. It is specifically approved for the treatment of CMV retinitis in immunocompromised patients.
3. Ganciclovir has a high specificity for CMV, making it an effective antiviral agent against CMV.
Summary of why the other choices are incorrect:
- Choice B (Foscarnet) is also active against CMV but is not as commonly used as Ganciclovir.
- Choice C (Acyclovir) is not effective against CMV as it primarily targets herpes simplex virus and varicella-zoster virus.
- Choice D ( ) is an incomplete choice and does not correspond to any known antiviral agent.
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Desmopressin reduces urine volume in which of the following condition?
- A. Central (neurogenic) diabetes insipidus
- B. Renal (nephrogenic) diabetes insipidus
- C. Both (a) and (b)
- D. Neither (a) nor (b)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Desmopressin reduces urine volume by mimicking the effects of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). In central diabetes insipidus, there is a deficiency of ADH production, so desmopressin can help by supplementing ADH. In renal diabetes insipidus, the kidneys do not respond to ADH, so desmopressin would not be effective. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B is incorrect because desmopressin does not address the underlying issue of kidney insensitivity to ADH. Choice C is incorrect because desmopressin is effective only in central diabetes insipidus. Choice D is incorrect because desmopressin is effective in central diabetes insipidus.
If necessary, your physician can increase your dose up to 40 mg per day.
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
- C. Maybe
- D. Not mentioned
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: The statement indicates the possibility of increasing the dose up to 40 mg, implying that it is within the physician's discretion.
Step 2: The use of the word "can" suggests the potential for the physician to make such an adjustment.
Step 3: The phrase "if necessary" implies that the dose adjustment will be based on the individual's specific needs.
Step 4: Therefore, it is true that the physician has the authority to increase the dose up to 40 mg per day based on the patient's condition and requirements.
Which test is required for a diagnosis of pyelonephritis?
- A. Renal biopsy
- B. Blood culture
- C. Intravenous pyelogram (IVP)
- D. Urine for culture and sensitivity
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Urine for culture and sensitivity. This test is required for a diagnosis of pyelonephritis as it helps identify the specific bacteria causing the infection and determines the most effective antibiotic treatment. Renal biopsy (A) is not typically required for diagnosing pyelonephritis. Blood culture (B) may be helpful in severe cases but is not specific for pyelonephritis. Intravenous pyelogram (IVP) (C) is a radiological test used to visualize the urinary tract but does not confirm the diagnosis of pyelonephritis.
The patient with chronic kidney disease is considering whether to use peritoneal dialysis (PD) or hemodialysis (HD). What are advantages of PD when compared to HD (select all that apply)?
- A. Less protein loss
- B. Rapid fluid removal
- C. Less cardiovascular stress
- D. Decreased hyperlipidemia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Less protein loss. Peritoneal dialysis (PD) occurs continuously, allowing for a slower and gentler removal of waste products, leading to less protein loss compared to the intermittent nature of hemodialysis (HD). This is because PD uses the peritoneal membrane as a filter, which is more gentle on proteins.
Rapid fluid removal (B) is actually an advantage of HD, as it can quickly remove excess fluids. Less cardiovascular stress (C) is not a specific advantage of PD over HD, as both types of dialysis can impact cardiovascular health. Decreased hyperlipidemia (D) is not a direct advantage of PD over HD.
A 75 year old man is suffering from benign prostatic hypertrophy and is being treated with terazosin. Which of the following adverse reaction would be expected taking this drug?
- A. Erectile dysfunction
- B. Orthostatic hypotension
- C. GI distress
- D. Gynecomastia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Orthostatic hypotension. Terazosin is an alpha-1 blocker commonly used to treat benign prostatic hypertrophy. It works by relaxing smooth muscle in the prostate and bladder neck. This relaxation can lead to vasodilation and subsequently cause a drop in blood pressure. Orthostatic hypotension is a common adverse reaction of alpha-1 blockers due to this mechanism. The other choices, A: Erectile dysfunction, C: GI distress, and D: Gynecomastia are not typically associated with terazosin use. Erectile dysfunction can actually be improved with alpha-1 blockers as they relax smooth muscle in the prostate, allowing for easier urination and potentially improved sexual function. GI distress and gynecomastia are not common side effects of terazosin.