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April, a 10-year-old admitted to inpatient pediatric care, has been getting more and more wound up and is losing self-control in the day room. Time-out does not appear to be an effective tool for April to engage in self-reflection. April's mother admits to putting her in time-out up to 20 times a day. The nurse recognizes that:
- A. Time-out is an important part of April's baseline discipline.
- B. Time-out is no longer an effective therapeutic measure.
- C. April enjoys time-out and acts out to get some alone time.
- D. Time-out will need to be replaced with seclusion and restraint.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Time-out is no longer an effective therapeutic measure.' In this scenario, the excessive use of time-out, up to 20 times a day, indicates that it is no longer effective in helping April self-reflect and control her behavior. Constant use of time-out without achieving the desired outcome suggests the need for alternative therapeutic interventions. Choice A is incorrect because the situation described indicates that time-out is not serving its intended purpose. Choice C is also incorrect as the behavior is not driven by a desire for alone time. Choice D is incorrect and inappropriate as seclusion and restraint should only be considered as a last resort and are not indicated based on the information provided.
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A male client with a long history of alcohol dependency arrives in the emergency department describing the feeling of bugs crawling on his body. His BP is 170/102, pulse rate is 110 bpm, and his blood alcohol level (BAL) is 0 mg/dl. Which medication should the nurse administer?
- A. Haloperidol (Haldol)
- B. Thiamine (Vitamin B1)
- C. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
- D. Lorazepam (Ativan)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing hallucinations and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the appropriate choice as it helps manage withdrawal symptoms, including hallucinations and elevated blood pressure in alcohol-dependent clients. Haloperidol (Haldol) (Choice A) is an antipsychotic but is not the first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Thiamine (Vitamin B1) (Choice B) is essential in alcohol withdrawal treatment for preventing Wernicke's encephalopathy, but in this case, addressing the acute withdrawal symptoms is the priority. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) (Choice C) is an antihistamine that may help with itching or mild anxiety but is not the preferred choice for managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms like hallucinations and elevated blood pressure.
A male adolescent was admitted to the unit two days ago for depression. When the mental health nurse tries to interview the client to establish rapport, he becomes very irritated and sarcastic. Which action is best for the nurse to take?
- A. Offer to play a game of cards with the client.
- B. Report the behavior to the next shift.
- C. Document the behavior in the chart.
- D. Plan to talk with the client the next day.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Offering to play a game of cards with the adolescent is the best action for the nurse to take in this situation. Engaging in an activity like playing a game can help establish rapport with the adolescent as it provides a more relaxed and non-threatening environment for communication. This approach can help the adolescent feel more comfortable and open up, as adolescents often find it easier to communicate when involved in an activity. Reporting the behavior to the next shift, documenting the behavior, or planning to talk with the client the next day do not directly address the immediate need to establish rapport and improve communication with the adolescent.
What assessment questions should the nurse ask when attempting to determine a teenager's mental health resilience? Select all that apply.
- A. How did you cope when your father deployed with the Army for a year in Iraq?
- B. Who did you go to for advice while your father was away for a year in Iraq?
- C. How do you feel about talking to a mental health counselor?
- D. Where do you see yourself in 10 years?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The question 'How do you feel about talking to a mental health counselor?' is the most appropriate to assess the teenager's mental health resilience as it directly addresses their willingness to seek help and cope effectively. Choices A and B focus on coping mechanisms during a specific event, which may not reflect the teenager's overall resilience. Choice D is more related to future aspirations rather than assessing current mental health resilience.
During the admission assessment, a female client requests that her husband be allowed to stay in the room. When the RN notes a discrepancy between the client's verbal and nonverbal communication, what action should the RN take?
- A. Pay close attention to and document the nonverbal messages.
- B. Ask the client's husband to interpret the discrepancy.
- C. Ignore the nonverbal behavior and focus solely on the client's verbal messages.
- D. Integrate the verbal and nonverbal messages and interpret them together.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: During a client assessment, noting and documenting nonverbal messages is important as it captures the full context of the client's communication. Nonverbal cues can often reveal underlying emotions or issues that may not be expressed verbally. Asking the client's husband to interpret the discrepancy (Choice B) may not be appropriate as it could potentially breach the client's privacy and trust. Ignoring nonverbal behavior (Choice C) can result in missing important cues that could impact the care provided. Integrating verbal and nonverbal messages (Choice D) is beneficial, but the initial step should be to pay close attention and document the nonverbal messages to fully understand the client's communication.
A client diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) engages in repetitive hand washing that lasts for several hours. Which strategy should the nurse use to manage this behavior?
- A. Encourage the client to continue the behavior to alleviate anxiety.
- B. Establish a routine schedule for hand washing.
- C. Gradually reduce the amount of time spent on the behavior.
- D. Ignore the behavior as much as possible.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), it's crucial to gradually reduce the compulsive behavior to help the client learn to manage anxiety in a structured manner. Encouraging the client to continue the behavior (Choice A) would reinforce the cycle of compulsions. While establishing a routine schedule (Choice B) may provide some structure, it doesn't address the core issue of excessive hand washing. Ignoring the behavior (Choice D) may lead to worsening symptoms and does not help the client in managing their OCD effectively.