Nokea
_____ are environmental agents that can harm the embryo or fetus.
- A. Mutations
- B. Autosomes
- C. Teratogens
- D. Androgens
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Teratogens are environmental agents, such as drugs, chemicals, or infections, that can cause harm to a developing embryo or fetus. Mutations (Choice A) refer to changes in the DNA sequence and are not environmental agents. Autosomes (Choice B) are chromosomes that are not involved in determining an individual's sex and are not environmental agents that harm the embryo or fetus. Androgens (Choice D) are a group of hormones that are more related to male sexual development and function, not environmental agents that harm the embryo or fetus.
You may also like to solve these questions
Which field of biology studies heredity?
- A. Etiology.
- B. Ecology.
- C. Genetics.
- D. Eugenics.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Genetics is the branch of biology that focuses on the study of heredity and variation in organisms. Etiology (choice A) deals with the causes of diseases, not heredity. Ecology (choice B) is concerned with the relationships between organisms and their environment, not specifically heredity. Eugenics (choice D) is a controversial field that involves improving the genetic quality of the human population through selective breeding, which is different from the study of heredity itself.
During the client's initial prenatal visit, which of the following would indicate a need for further assessment?
- A. History of diabetes for 6 years.
- B. Exercises three times a week.
- C. Occasional use of over-the-counter pain relievers.
- D. Maternal age 30 years.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A history of diabetes for 6 years indicates a pre-existing medical condition that can significantly impact both the mother and the developing fetus during pregnancy. This necessitates further assessment and monitoring to manage potential complications. Regular exercise (Choice B) is generally beneficial during pregnancy and does not raise immediate concerns. Occasional use of over-the-counter pain relievers (Choice C) is common and does not necessarily indicate a need for further assessment during the initial visit. Maternal age of 30 years (Choice D) falls within the normal range for childbearing and is not a standalone factor requiring immediate further assessment.
A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation is receiving teaching about expected changes during pregnancy. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. Your stomach will empty rapidly
- B. You should expect your uterus to double in size
- C. You should anticipate nasal stuffiness
- D. Your nipples will become lighter in color
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Nasal stuffiness is a common symptom during pregnancy due to increased blood flow and hormonal changes. This symptom is caused by the increased blood volume and hormonal changes that lead to swelling of the nasal passages. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Stomach emptying rate does not significantly change during pregnancy; the uterus does not double in size at 24 weeks but rather grows steadily, and nipples typically darken in color due to increased pigmentation.
A 30-year-old primigravida delivers a nine-pound (4082 gram) infant vaginally after a 30-hour labor. What is the priority nursing action for this client?
- A. Assess the blood pressure for hypertension.
- B. Gently massage fundus every four hours.
- C. Observe for signs of uterine hemorrhage.
- D. Encourage direct contact with the infant.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: After a prolonged labor and delivery of a large infant, the client is at an increased risk for uterine atony and postpartum hemorrhage, making observation for signs of bleeding a priority. Assessing the blood pressure for hypertension (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation as the immediate concern is postpartum hemorrhage. Gently massaging the fundus every four hours (Choice B) is a routine postpartum care activity but is not the priority in this scenario. Encouraging direct contact with the infant (Choice D) is important for bonding but does not address the immediate risk of uterine hemorrhage after delivery.
At 31 weeks gestation, a client with a fundal height measurement of 25 cm is scheduled for a series of ultrasounds to be performed every two weeks. Which explanation should the nurse provide?
- A. Assessment for congenital anomalies
- B. Recalculation of gestational age
- C. Evaluation of fetal growth
- D. Determination of fetal presentation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Evaluation of fetal growth.' A fundal height measurement smaller than expected may indicate intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), requiring serial ultrasounds to monitor fetal growth. Assessing for congenital anomalies (choice A) is usually done through detailed anatomy scans earlier in pregnancy. Recalculating gestational age (choice B) is typically unnecessary at this stage unless there are concerns about accuracy. Determining fetal presentation (choice D) is usually done closer to term to plan for the mode of delivery.