As Nurse Pedrito prepares for the day's visits, which of the following patients should be seen FIRST? A client with ________.
- A. Parkinson's disease with imbalance gait.
- B. A thoracostomy six months ago.
- C. A history of congestive heart failure with dyspnea.
- D. A stroke with nasogastric tube (NGT).
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The patient with a history of congestive heart failure and dyspnea should be seen FIRST by Nurse Pedrito. Congestive heart failure is a serious condition that can lead to acute exacerbations and requires prompt assessment and management. Dyspnea (shortness of breath) is a common symptom of heart failure and can indicate worsening cardiac function or fluid overload, which requires immediate attention to prevent further complications. Timely assessment and intervention for heart failure exacerbations can help prevent hospital admissions and improve patient outcomes. Therefore, prioritizing this patient for assessment and intervention is crucial to ensure their safety and well-being.
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Collecting data and monitoring the health status of the population defines which of the core public health functions?
- A. Quality assurance
- B. Policy development
- C. Assessment
- D. Health promotion
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The core public health function of assessment involves systematic data collection on the population's health status, monitoring changes in health, and making information available to the public. In this context, collecting data and monitoring the health status of the population directly aligns with the assessment function of public health. Quality assurance focuses on ensuring that health services meet established standards, policy development involves creating policies to address public health issues, and health promotion involves empowering individuals to improve their health. While these functions are also essential in public health, the act of collecting data and monitoring health status specifically falls under the assessment core function.
A patient presents with symptoms of polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and glycosuria. Which type of diabetes mellitus is the patient most likely experiencing?
- A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
- B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
- C. Gestational diabetes mellitus
- D. Latent autoimmune diabetes in adults (LADA)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient is most likely experiencing Type 1 diabetes mellitus based on the presentation of polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, hyperglycemia, and glycosuria. Type 1 diabetes is characterized by autoimmune destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas, leading to absolute insulin deficiency. This results in high blood sugar levels (hyperglycemia) and glucose spilling into the urine (glycosuria). Patients with Type 1 diabetes often present with the classic symptoms of polyuria (increased urination), polydipsia (increased thirst), and polyphagia (increased hunger) due to the body's inability to utilize glucose for energy effectively. Management of Type 1 diabetes typically involves lifelong insulin therapy to maintain blood sugar levels within a target range.
Before the education plan of the staff nurse can be finalized and implemented, it is best that it is reviewed by the
- A. Nurse supervisor
- B. Head nurse
- C. Medical Director
- D. Chief nurse
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Before finalizing and implementing the education plan for the staff nurse, it is important to have the plan reviewed by the nurse supervisor. The nurse supervisor is directly responsible for overseeing the staff nurses and their education and training needs. They have a good understanding of the staff nurse's current skills, areas for improvement, and training requirements. By involving the nurse supervisor in the review process, you can ensure that the education plan is aligned with the overall goals and needs of the nursing staff and the department. Additionally, the nurse supervisor can provide valuable input and insights to help tailor the education plan to meet the specific needs of the staff nurses under their supervision.
Amitriptyline, an antidepressant is the drug of choice in treating Bulimia. What is a COMMON side effect of this drug?
- A. Anticholinergic effects
- B. Cholinergic effects
- C. Urinary frequency
- D. Diarrhea
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Amitriptyline, being a tricyclic antidepressant, commonly causes anticholinergic side effects. These effects include dry mouth, constipation, blurred vision, urinary retention, and confusion. Anticholinergic effects are due to the drug's inhibition of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine, which can lead to the symptoms mentioned above. These side effects can be bothersome for patients taking amitriptyline, but they are generally manageable and often improve over time as the body adjusts to the medication. In the case of bulimia treatment, the benefits of using amitriptyline to address the underlying psychological issues often outweigh the side effects.
A patient presents with unilateral nasal congestion, facial pain, and purulent nasal discharge. Upon examination, tenderness is noted over the affected sinus. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
- A. Allergic rhinitis
- B. Acute sinusitis
- C. Nasal polyps
- D. Deviated nasal septum
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The patient's symptoms of unilateral nasal congestion, facial pain, and purulent nasal discharge with tenderness over the affected sinus are suggestive of acute sinusitis. Acute sinusitis is typically caused by a viral or bacterial infection leading to inflammation and swelling of the sinus mucosa, resulting in the characteristic symptoms described. The tenderness over the affected sinus indicates inflammation in that area. Allergic rhinitis typically presents with bilateral nasal congestion, clear nasal discharge, and itching, rather than facial pain and purulent discharge. Nasal polyps are associated with chronic conditions and usually lead to more gradual onset of symptoms. A deviated nasal septum may contribute to chronic sinus issues but typically does not present with acute symptoms of infection like purulent discharge and facial pain.