Nokea
As the new PHN in barangay Masinag, what is necessary to conduct in order to get a picture of the health and social status of the community?
- A. Mass information campaign
- B. Home visit
- C. Community assembly
- D. Community health survey
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: To accurately assess the health and social status of a community, conducting a community health survey is essential. This method provides a comprehensive and systematic way to gather data on various health indicators and social determinants within the community. Choices A, B, and C are not as effective in providing a holistic view of the community's health and social status. A mass information campaign may raise awareness but lacks in-depth data collection, a home visit focuses on individual households rather than the entire community, and a community assembly may not reach all community members or provide structured data collection.
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The nurse is assigned to a client with Parkinson's disease. Which findings would the nurse anticipate?
- A. Non-intention tremors and urgency with voiding
- B. Echolalia and a shuffling gait
- C. Muscle spasm and a bent-over posture
- D. Intention tremor and jerky movement of the elbows
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Echolalia (repeating others' words) and a shuffling gait are common symptoms of Parkinson's disease. These symptoms result from the degeneration of the basal ganglia in the brain that controls movement and speech. Choice A is incorrect because non-intention tremors are not typically associated with Parkinson's disease. Choice C is incorrect as muscle spasm and a bent-over posture are not classic manifestations of Parkinson's disease. Choice D is incorrect since intention tremors and jerky movement of the elbows are not characteristic of Parkinson's disease.
As a client who is terminally ill has been receiving high doses of an opioid analgesic for the past month and becomes unresponsive to verbal stimuli as death approaches, what orders would the nurse expect from the healthcare provider?
- A. Decrease the analgesic dosage by half
- B. Discontinue the analgesic
- C. Continue the same analgesic dosage
- D. Prescribe a less potent drug
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Continuing the same dosage of analgesic is appropriate to manage pain effectively as death nears and the client becomes unresponsive. The primary goal of palliative care in end-of-life situations is to ensure comfort, regardless of the client's level of consciousness. Decreasing the analgesic dosage or discontinuing it could lead to inadequate pain relief, which goes against the principles of palliative care. Prescribing a less potent drug may also compromise pain management in this critical stage. Therefore, maintaining the same analgesic dosage is the most appropriate action to provide comfort and alleviate suffering.
What is a key component of a successful smoking cessation program?
- A. Providing nicotine replacement therapy
- B. Offering surgical interventions
- C. Conducting regular health screenings
- D. Promoting alcohol consumption
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Providing nicotine replacement therapy is a key component of smoking cessation programs as it helps individuals manage nicotine withdrawal symptoms. Nicotine replacement therapy includes options like nicotine gum, patches, lozenges, or inhalers. Choice B, offering surgical interventions, is incorrect as smoking cessation programs primarily focus on behavioral and pharmacological interventions rather than surgical procedures. Choice C, conducting regular health screenings, is also incorrect as it is not a direct key component of smoking cessation programs. Choice D, promoting alcohol consumption, is not only incorrect but counterproductive, as it can be detrimental to overall health and hinder smoking cessation efforts.
The nurse is assigned to a newly delivered woman with HIV/AIDS. The student asks the nurse about how it is determined that a person has AIDS other than a positive HIV test. The nurse responds:
- A. The complaints of at least 3 common findings.
- B. The absence of any opportunistic infection.
- C. CD4 lymphocyte count is less than 200.
- D. Developmental delays in children.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A CD4 count less than 200 cells/mm³ is a diagnostic criterion for AIDS. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is vague and does not reflect the diagnostic criteria for AIDS. Choice B is not accurate, as the presence of opportunistic infections, not their absence, is indicative of AIDS. Choice D is unrelated to the diagnosis of AIDS in adults.
A client is admitted with the diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). Which of the following lab values would be consistent with this diagnosis?
- A. Low serum albumin
- B. High serum cholesterol
- C. Abnormally low white blood cell count
- D. Elevated creatinine phosphokinase (CPK)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Elevated creatinine phosphokinase (CPK). Elevated CPK levels indicate muscle damage, including damage to the cardiac muscle, which aligns with the diagnosis of myocardial infarction.
Choice A, low serum albumin, is not directly related to myocardial infarction. Choice B, high serum cholesterol, is more associated with conditions like atherosclerosis rather than acute myocardial infarction. Choice C, abnormally low white blood cell count, is typically not a lab value associated with myocardial infarction; instead, it could suggest other conditions like infections or bone marrow issues.