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Assessment findings of a 4-hour-old newborn include: axillary temperature of 96.8°F (35.8°C), heart rate of 150 beats/minute with a soft murmur, irregular respiratory rate at 64 breaths/minute, jitteriness, hypotonia, and weak cry. Based on these findings, which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Swaddle the infant in a warm blanket.
- B. Obtain a heel stick blood glucose level.
- C. Place a pulse oximeter on the heel.
- D. Document the findings in the record.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The assessment findings in the newborn, such as jitteriness, weak cry, and hypotonia, are indicative of potential hypoglycemia. To confirm this suspicion, the nurse should obtain a heel stick blood glucose level, which is the most appropriate action in this situation. Checking the blood glucose level will provide crucial information to determine the newborn's glucose status and guide further management if hypoglycemia is confirmed. Swaddling the infant in a warm blanket does not address the underlying issue of potential hypoglycemia and may not effectively raise the blood glucose level. Placing a pulse oximeter on the heel is not indicated for assessing hypoglycemia. Documenting the findings in the record is important but does not address the immediate concern of assessing and managing potential hypoglycemia.
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During a prenatal visit, the nurse discusses with a client the effects of smoking on the fetus. When compared with nonsmokers, mothers who smoke during pregnancy tend to produce infants who have
- A. lower Apgar scores.
- B. lower birth weights.
- C. respiratory distress.
- D. a higher rate of congenital anomalies.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Smoking during pregnancy is associated with intrauterine growth restriction, leading to lower birth weights. This occurs due to the harmful effects of smoking on fetal development, which can result in reduced nutrient and oxygen supply to the fetus, impacting its overall growth and leading to lower birth weights. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as smoking during pregnancy primarily affects fetal growth and development, leading to lower birth weights rather than lower Apgar scores, respiratory distress, or a higher rate of congenital anomalies.
The nurse is caring for a client who experienced fetal demise at 32 weeks' gestation. After the fetus is delivered vaginally, the nurse implements fetal demise protocol and identification procedures. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?
- A. Create a memory box with the baby's footprint and photographs.
- B. Determine if the mother desires a visit from her clergy.
- C. Encourage the mother to hold and spend time with her baby.
- D. Explain the reasons for obtaining consent for an infant autopsy.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Encouraging the mother to hold and spend time with her baby is crucial after a fetal demise at 32 weeks' gestation. This action can support the mother in the grieving process, facilitate bonding, and provide closure, helping her cope with the loss of the baby. Creating a memory box with the baby's footprint and photographs could be emotionally comforting but not as immediate and impactful as encouraging direct physical contact. While offering a visit from her clergy may provide spiritual support, the immediate need is to address the physical and emotional aspects of the situation. Explaining the reasons for obtaining consent for an infant autopsy is important, but it is secondary to the immediate emotional support needed by the mother.
During a well-child visit for their child, one of the parents with an autosomal dominant disorder tells the nurse, 'We don't plan on having any more children, since the next child is likely to inherit this disorder.' How should the nurse respond?
- A. Explain that the risk of inheriting the disorder decreases by 50% with each child the couple has.
- B. Acknowledge that the next child will inherit the disorder since the first child did not.
- C. Encourage the couple to reconsider their decision since the inheritance pattern may be sex-linked.
- D. Confirm that there is a 50% chance of their future children inheriting the disorder.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Confirming that there is a 50% chance of their future children inheriting the disorder is the correct response in this situation. Autosomal dominant disorders have a 50% chance of being passed on to each child. Providing accurate genetic counseling is essential to help the parents make informed decisions about family planning. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate because the risk of inheriting an autosomal dominant disorder remains at 50% for each child regardless of the number of children the couple has. Choice B is not appropriate as it does not provide helpful information or support to the parents. Choice C is misleading because autosomal dominant disorders follow a specific inheritance pattern and are not sex-linked.
A 4-year-old boy presents with a rash and is diagnosed with varicella (chickenpox). What is the most appropriate intervention to manage this condition?
- A. Administer oral acyclovir.
- B. Apply calamine lotion to soothe itching.
- C. Encourage scratching to relieve itching.
- D. Encourage bed rest to avoid spreading the rash.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for managing varicella (chickenpox) in a 4-year-old child is to apply calamine lotion to soothe itching. Calamine lotion helps alleviate the itching associated with the chickenpox rash, providing relief to the child. It is important to discourage scratching to prevent complications such as scarring or secondary bacterial infections. Encouraging bed rest can be beneficial for comfort but is not the primary intervention to manage chickenpox.
A client at 32 weeks gestation is hospitalized with severe pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and magnesium sulfate is prescribed to control the symptoms. Which assessment finding indicates the therapeutic drug level has been achieved?
- A. 4+ reflexes
- B. Urinary output of 50 ml per hour
- C. A decrease in respiratory rate from 24 to 16
- D. A decreased body temperature
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A decrease in respiratory rate from 24 to 16 indicates that magnesium sulfate is effectively reducing central nervous system irritability, a desired therapeutic effect. This decrease in respiratory rate signifies that the drug has reached a therapeutic level to control symptoms of severe pregnancy-induced hypertension. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because 4+ reflexes, urinary output, and body temperature are not direct indicators of achieving a therapeutic level of magnesium sulfate for controlling PIH symptoms.