Nokea
At 12 hours after the birth of a healthy infant, the mother complains of feeling constant vaginal pressure. The nurse determines the fundus is firm and at midline with moderate rubra lochia. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Check the suprapubic area for distention
- B. Inform the client to take a warm sitz bath
- C. Inspect the client's perineal and rectal areas
- D. Apply a fresh pad and check in 1 hour
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this situation, the mother's complaint of constant vaginal pressure along with a firm fundus and moderate rubra lochia indicates a potential perineal injury or hematoma. The correct action for the nurse to take is to inspect the client's perineal and rectal areas to assess for any signs of trauma or hematoma. Checking the suprapubic area for distention (Choice A) is not the priority here since the symptoms suggest a perineal issue. Advising a warm sitz bath (Choice B) may not address the underlying issue and could potentially worsen any existing trauma. Applying a fresh pad and checking in 1 hour (Choice D) does not address the need for immediate assessment of the perineal and rectal areas in response to the reported symptoms.
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What nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia?
- A. Risk for injury to mother and fetus, related to central nervous system (CNS) irritability.
- B. Risk for altered gas exchange.
- C. Risk for deficient fluid volume, related to increased sodium retention secondary to the administration of magnesium sulfate.
- D. Risk for increased cardiac output, related to the use of antihypertensive drugs.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia is 'Risk for injury to mother and fetus, related to central nervous system (CNS) irritability.' Severe preeclampsia poses a significant risk of injury to both the mother and the fetus due to complications such as seizures, stroke, and placental abruption. 'Risk for altered gas exchange' is not the priority diagnosis as pulmonary edema is more common in severe preeclampsia. 'Risk for deficient fluid volume' is incorrect as sodium retention in severe preeclampsia often leads to fluid overload. 'Risk for increased cardiac output' is also incorrect as antihypertensive drugs are used to reduce cardiac output in this condition.
Twins that derive from a single zygote that has split into two are called:
- A. monozygotic (MZ) twins.
- B. fraternal twins.
- C. non-identical twins.
- D. dizygotic (DZ) twins.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: monozygotic (MZ) twins. Monozygotic twins, also known as identical twins, occur when a single zygote splits into two embryos, leading to two genetically identical individuals. Choice B, fraternal twins, are twins that develop from two separate eggs fertilized by two different sperm cells, resulting in non-identical siblings. Choice C, non-identical twins, is not a common term used to describe this type of twinning. Choice D, dizygotic (DZ) twins, refer to twins that develop from two separate eggs fertilized by two different sperm cells, leading to non-identical twins.
Thalidomide was marketed in the 1960s as a treatment for:
- A. insomnia and nausea.
- B. infertility and impotence.
- C. Down syndrome.
- D. Turner syndrome.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Thalidomide was initially marketed as a treatment for insomnia and nausea, particularly in pregnant women. However, it was later found to cause severe birth defects, leading to significant consequences. Choice B, infertility and impotence, is incorrect as thalidomide was not marketed for these conditions. Choices C and D, Down syndrome and Turner syndrome, are genetic conditions and not conditions for which thalidomide was intended as a treatment.
A client is receiving oxytocin by continuous IV infusion for labor induction. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Increase the infusion rate every 30 to 60 minutes.
- B. Maintain the client in a supine position.
- C. Titrate the infusion rate by 4 milliunits/min.
- D. Limit IV intake to 4 L per 24 hours.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to increase the infusion rate every 30 to 60 minutes. This approach allows for the careful monitoring and adjustment of oxytocin administration during labor induction. Choice B is incorrect because maintaining the client in a supine position can decrease blood flow to the placenta and compromise fetal oxygenation. Choice C is incorrect as titrating the infusion rate by 4 milliunits/min is not a standard practice for oxytocin administration. Choice D is incorrect as limiting IV intake to 4 L per 24 hours is not specifically related to the administration of oxytocin for labor induction.
When discussing risk factors for gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) with a group of pregnant clients, which ethnicity should the nurse identify as having the lowest incidence of GDM?
- A. Asian
- B. Non-Hispanic White American
- C. Hispanic
- D. African American
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Non-Hispanic White Americans have the lowest incidence of gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) compared to other ethnicities. This is because GDM is more prevalent among certain ethnic groups, such as Asian, Hispanic, and African American populations. Asian individuals have an increased risk of developing GDM due to genetic factors, while Hispanic and African American populations have higher incidences of GDM due to lifestyle and genetic predispositions. Therefore, the correct answer is B, as Non-Hispanic White Americans generally have a lower risk of developing GDM.