At a public health fair, a nurse discusses the dangers of sun exposure. Prolonged sun exposure has been blamed for which form of cancer?
- A. Malignant melanoma
- B. Basal cell epithelioma
- C. Squamous cell carcinoma
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Malignant melanoma, basal cell epithelioma, and squamous cell carcinoma are all forms of skin cancer associated with prolonged sun exposure. Melanoma is the deadliest form, originating in melanocytes; basal cell and squamous cell carcinomas are more common but less aggressive. All three types can develop due to cumulative UV radiation exposure. Therefore, all options are correct in this context.
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Which virus causes genital warts?
- A. Cytomegalovirus
- B. Human papillomavirus
- C. Herpes simplex virus type II
- D. Human immunodeficiency virus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Human papillomavirus (HPV). HPV is the virus that causes genital warts. It is transmitted through sexual contact and is the most common sexually transmitted infection. Cytomegalovirus (A) does not cause genital warts. Herpes simplex virus type II (C) causes genital herpes, not warts. Human immunodeficiency virus (D) causes AIDS and weakens the immune system but does not directly cause genital warts.
An adult is to receive narcotic analgesics via patient controlled analgesia. The nurse is evaluating client’s understanding of the procedure. Which of the following statements by the client indicates that she understand PCA?
- A. When I press this button the machine will always give me more medicine.
- B. I will press the button whenever I feel pain
- C. I should press this button every hour so the pain doesn’t come back
- D. With this machine I will experience no more pain
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "I will press the button whenever I feel pain." This answer demonstrates understanding of how patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) works, where the client self-administers medication when needed for pain relief. Option A is incorrect as the machine is programmed with lockout intervals to prevent overdosing. Option C is incorrect as the client should only press the button when experiencing pain, not on a fixed schedule. Option D is incorrect as PCA does not guarantee complete pain elimination. The key in PCA is empowering the client to self-administer medication based on their pain level.
. A client with a suspected left sided heart failure is scheduled to undergo a multigated acquisition scan. Which of the following actions is required before undergoing the test?
- A. Diuretics are administered
- B. Client should avoid fluid intake 6 hours
- C. Client is medicated to relieve cough before the test
- D. Client is administered analgesics
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
- A: Diuretics are not necessary before the test and may affect test results.
- B: Dehydration is not recommended before the test as it can impact cardiac function.
- C: Medication to relieve cough is necessary to reduce any potential interference with the scan.
- D: Administering analgesics is not required for the test and may not be relevant to the client's condition.
What is the causative agent in HIV/AIDS?
- A. trichomonas vaginalis
- B. Treponema pallidum
- C. Human, T-cell lymphotrophio virus
- D. Chlamydia tranchomatis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Human, T-cell lymphotrophic virus, as it is the causative agent for HIV/AIDS. This virus specifically targets and infects the body's T-cells, weakening the immune system. Trichomonas vaginalis, Treponema pallidum, and Chlamydia trachomatis are all different pathogens that do not cause HIV/AIDS. Trichomonas vaginalis is a protozoan parasite that causes trichomoniasis, Treponema pallidum causes syphilis, and Chlamydia trachomatis causes chlamydia. Therefore, the correct answer is C based on the specific viral agent responsible for HIV/AIDS.
A client who is receiving a blood transfusion begins to experience chills, shortness of breath, nausea, excessive perspiration, and a vague sense of uneasiness. What is the nurse’s first best action?
- A. Report the signs and symptoms to the
- B. Monitor the client’s vital signs
- C. Assess respiratory status
- D. Stop the infusion
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Stop the infusion. This is the best action because the client is likely experiencing a transfusion reaction. Stopping the infusion immediately is crucial to prevent further complications. Reporting the signs and symptoms to the healthcare provider (A) can cause a delay in addressing the reaction. While monitoring vital signs (B) and assessing respiratory status (C) are important, stopping the infusion takes precedence to ensure the client's safety and prevent a severe reaction.