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At health fair, an oncology nurse answers questions about risk factors for various types of cancer. One person with a family history of colon cancer asks the nurse to identify risk factors for this type of cancer. The nurse should identify:
- A. Smoking
- B. Heavy alcohol consumption
- C. Obesity
- D. Saccharin consumption
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obesity. Obesity is a known risk factor for colon cancer as it can lead to chronic inflammation and changes in hormone levels, increasing the risk of developing cancerous cells in the colon. Smoking (choice A) is more strongly associated with lung cancer. Heavy alcohol consumption (choice B) is linked to increased risk of liver and esophageal cancer, not colon cancer. Saccharin consumption (choice D) has not been definitively linked to colon cancer. In summary, obesity is the most relevant risk factor for colon cancer among the choices provided.
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Of the following information collected during a nursing assessment, which are subjective data?
- A. vomiting, pulse 96
- B. respirations 22, blood pressure 130/80
- C. nausea, abdominal pain
- D. pale skin, thick toenails
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Subjective data are information reported by the patient that cannot be measured or observed directly. In this case, nausea and abdominal pain are symptoms that can only be described by the patient, making them subjective data. Vomiting, pulse rate, respirations, blood pressure, pale skin, and thick toenails are all objective data, as they can be measured or observed directly by the healthcare provider. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer as it represents subjective data.
Which statement by a nurse indicates a good understanding about the differences between data validation and data interpretation?
- A. “Data interpretation occurs before data validation.”
- B. “Validation involves looking for patterns in professional standards.”
- C. “Validation involves comparing data with other sources for accuracy.”
- D. “Data interpretation involves discovering patterns in professional standards.”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because data validation involves comparing data with other sources to ensure accuracy. This step ensures that the data is reliable and error-free. Option A is incorrect as data validation typically comes after data collection and cleaning, which precede data interpretation. Option B is incorrect as validation does not specifically focus on professional standards but rather on accuracy and consistency. Option D is incorrect as data interpretation involves analyzing and deriving insights from the validated data, not looking for patterns in professional standards.
If Mr. Franco’s Right side is weak, What should be the most accurate analysis by the nurse?
- A. Expressive aphasia is prominent on clients with right sided weakness
- B. The affected lobe in the patient is the Right lobe
- C. The client will have problems in judging distance and proprioception
- D. Clients orientation to time and space will be much affected NEUROLOGIC NURSING Situation: A computer analyst, Mr. Ricardo J. Santos, 25 was brought to the hospital for diagnostic workup after he had experienced seizure in his office.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the right side weakness indicates a lesion in the left hemisphere of the brain. The brain's motor functions are contralaterally controlled, meaning the left hemisphere controls the right side of the body. Therefore, a right-sided weakness suggests a lesion in the left hemisphere. The other choices are incorrect because expressive aphasia is associated with left hemisphere lesions, judgment of distance and proprioception are more related to parietal lobe lesions, and orientation to time and space is not directly linked to right-sided weakness.
A client with spinal cord injury at the level of T3 complains of a sudden severe headache and nasal congestion. The nurse observes that the client has a flushed skin with goose bumps. Which of the ff actions should the nurse first take?
- A. Raise the client’s head
- B. Place the client on a firm mattress
- C. Call the physician
- D. Administer an analgesic to relieve the pain
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Call the physician. In this scenario, the sudden severe headache and nasal congestion along with flushed skin and goosebumps suggest autonomic dysreflexia, a medical emergency in spinal cord injury at or above T6. The nurse should immediately call the physician to address this potentially life-threatening situation. Raising the client's head (A) may worsen the condition, placing the client on a firm mattress (B) is not a priority, and administering an analgesic (D) without addressing the underlying cause could lead to further complications. The priority is to identify and address the cause of autonomic dysreflexia promptly.
The adrenal cortex is responsible for producing which substances?
- A. Glucocortocoids and androgens
- B. Mineralocortiroids and
- C. Catecholamines and epinephrine catecholamines
- D. Norepinephine and epinephrine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Glucocorticoids and androgens. The adrenal cortex is divided into three layers, with the outer layer responsible for producing mineralocorticoids like aldosterone, the middle layer producing glucocorticoids like cortisol, and the inner layer producing androgens. Glucocorticoids are essential for regulating metabolism and immune response, while androgens are male sex hormones. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because mineralocorticoids, catecholamines, norepinephrine, and epinephrine are produced by different parts of the adrenal gland, not specifically by the adrenal cortex.