Nokea
At the beginning of the shift, a nurse receives report for her daily assignment. Which of the following situations should the nurse give first priority?
- A. A diabetic client with a blood glucose level of 195 mg/dL
- B. A family member of an elderly client who has questions
- C. A client with COPD with an oxygen saturation of 84%
- D. A client who requires assistance to use the bathroom
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: A client with COPD with an oxygen saturation of 84%. Oxygen saturation below 90% is considered critical, indicating hypoxemia in a client with COPD. Priority is given to critical physiological needs to avoid potential respiratory distress or failure. Choices A, B, and D are important but do not pose immediate life-threatening risks. The diabetic client with a blood glucose level of 195 mg/dL can be managed with insulin administration. The family member's questions can be addressed after addressing immediate client needs. The client who requires assistance to use the bathroom can be attended to once the critical client's needs are addressed. Prioritizing based on physiological urgency ensures client safety.
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Which of the following clients is most likely ready to be dismissed from an inpatient care setting to home?
- A. A 65-year old male with urine output of 60cc in the past four hours
- B. A 2-month old female with a temperature of 100.6 rectally
- C. A 38-year old female who transitioned from IV TPN to full liquids six hours ago
- D. A 4-year old male with an oxygen saturation of 96% on room air
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because an oxygen saturation of 96% on room air indicates adequate oxygenation, suggesting the client is stable and can be discharged home. A: Low urine output may indicate dehydration or kidney issues, requiring further monitoring. B: A fever in an infant warrants evaluation for infection, not ready for discharge. C: Recent transition from IV TPN to full liquids may require ongoing monitoring for tolerance and nutritional status.
Mr. W has orders for a physical therapy consult. The nurse contacts the appropriate department but 12 hours later, no one has come to see the client. Which is the most appropriate action of the nurse?
- A. Call the supervisor and file a complaint against the physical therapy department
- B. Contact the physician to notify him that the orders were not carried out
- C. Assess the client's activity level by assisting with ambulation using a gait belt
- D. Contact the physical therapy department again and repeat the order
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to contact the physical therapy department again and repeat the order (Choice D). This is the correct answer because it directly addresses the issue of the consult not being completed within a reasonable timeframe. By contacting the department again, the nurse ensures that the order is not overlooked or forgotten. This action shows proactive communication and follow-up to expedite the process and ensure the client receives the necessary care in a timely manner.
The other choices are incorrect:
A: Calling the supervisor and filing a complaint is premature without first attempting to resolve the issue directly with the department.
B: Contacting the physician is not the nurse's role in this situation. The focus should be on coordinating with the appropriate department.
C: Assessing the client's activity level is important but does not address the primary issue of the physical therapy consult not being completed.
Overall, choice D is the most appropriate course of action in this scenario.
A 39-year-old woman presents for treatment of excessive vaginal bleeding after giving birth to twins one week ago. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate in this situation?
- A. Knowledge Deficit related to post-partum blood loss
- B. Self-Care Deficit related to post-partum neglect
- C. Fluid Volume Deficit related to post-partum hemorrhage
- D. Body Image Disturbance related to body changes after delivery
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fluid Volume Deficit related to post-partum hemorrhage. This nursing diagnosis is most appropriate because excessive vaginal bleeding can lead to a significant loss of blood volume, potentially resulting in hypovolemia. It is crucial to address this issue promptly to prevent further complications. Choice A is incorrect as the primary concern is the fluid volume deficit, not knowledge deficit. Choice B is incorrect as self-care deficit is not the priority in this situation. Choice D is incorrect as body image disturbance is not directly related to the excessive bleeding.
Mr. K is admitted to the orthopedic unit one morning in preparation for a total knee replacement to start in two hours. Which of the following is a priority topic to instruct this client on admission?
- A. The approximate length of the surgery
- B. The type of anticoagulants that will be prescribed
- C. The time of the next meal of solid food
- D. The length of time until the client can return to work
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The approximate length of the surgery. This is the priority topic to instruct the client on admission because knowing the duration of the surgery helps manage the client's expectations and anxiety levels. Understanding the length of the procedure also allows the client to plan for post-operative care and recovery.
Choice B: The type of anticoagulants is important but not as critical on admission as knowing the surgery duration. Choice C: The time of the next meal is important for preoperative fasting but not as crucial as understanding the surgery length. Choice D: The length of time until the client can return to work is important, but it is a secondary concern compared to the immediate surgical procedure.
When taking Mr. D's blood pressure, the first sound you hear is at 162, and the second sound you hear is at 86. You should document and report that the blood pressure is _____________.
- A. 86/162
- B. irregular and high
- C. 162/86
- D. normal for people of all ages
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 162/86. The first sound heard corresponds to the systolic pressure (top number) and the second sound heard corresponds to the diastolic pressure (bottom number). Therefore, the blood pressure is documented as systolic/diastolic. In this case, the first sound at 162 indicates the systolic pressure, and the second sound at 86 indicates the diastolic pressure. Alternatives A (86/162) is incorrect as systolic pressure always comes first. B (irregular and high) is incorrect as the blood pressure values are within normal range. Option D (normal for people of all ages) is incorrect because the blood pressure should be documented as per standard practice, regardless of age.