Nokea
At this point in the client's pregnancy, which test is typically used to detect genetic disorders?
- A. Amniocentesis
- B. Chorionic villi sampling
- C. Rapid plasma reagin
- D. Ultrasound
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Chorionic villi sampling is performed at 10-13 weeks to detect genetic disorders, suitable for a 10-week pregnancy.
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During the first postpartum checkup, the nurse is assessing whether the client’s chloasma has diminished. At which anatomical location is the nurse performing the assessment?
- A. Perineum
- B. Abdomen
- C. Breasts
- D. Face
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Chloasma does not appear on the perineum. Chloasma does not appear on the abdomen. Chloasma does not appear on the breasts. The nurse should be assessing the skin over the cheeks, nose, and forehead for chloasma.
The client has a vaginal delivery of a full-term newborn. Immediately after delivery, the nurse assesses that the client’s perineum and labia are edematous, but she does not have an episiotomy or a perineal laceration. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Give her an ice pack to apply to the perineum.
- B. Teach her to relax her buttocks before sitting.
- C. Apply warm packs to the affected areas.
- D. Provide a plastic donut cushion for sitting.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: If perineal edema is present, ice packs should be applied for the first 24 hours. Ice reduces edema and vulvar irritation. The client should be taught to tighten, not relax, her buttocks when sitting. This compresses the buttocks and reduces pressure on the perineum. After 24 hours, heat is recommended to increase circulation to the area. Donut cushions should be avoided because they promote separation of the buttocks and decrease venous blood flow to the area, thus increasing pain.
The laboring client is experiencing problems, and the nurse is concerned about possible side effects from the epidural anesthetic just administered. Which problems should the nurse attribute to the epidural anesthetic? Select all that apply.
- A. Has breakthrough sharp pain
- B. Blood pressure is increased
- C. Has a pounding headache
- D. Unable to feel a full bladder
- E. Has an elevated temperature
Correct Answer: A,C,D,E
Rationale: Breakthrough pain can occur when the continuous infusion rate of the anesthetic agent is below the recommended rate for a therapeutic dose. Breakthrough pain can also occur when the client has a full bladder or when the cervix is completely dilated. A spinal headache can be a complication of epidural anesthesia and occurs when the dura is accidently punctured during epidural placement. A sensory level of T10 is usually maintained during epidural anesthesia; most women are unable to feel a full bladder or to void after receiving an epidural anesthetic. Maternal temperature may be elevated to 100.1°F (37.8°C) or higher with an epidural. Sympathetic blockade may decrease sweat production and diminish heat loss. Hypertension is a contraindication for epidural anesthesia. A major side effect of epidural anesthesia is hypotension (not hypertension) caused by a spinal blockade, which lowers peripheral resistance, decreases venous return to the heart, and subsequently lessens cardiac output and lowers BP.
The nurse is caring for the 24-year-old client whose pregnancy history is as follows: elective termination age 18 years, spontaneous abortion age 21 years, term vaginal delivery at 22 years old, and currently pregnant again. Which documentation by the nurse of the client’s gravidity and parity is correct?
- A. G4P1
- B. G4P2
- C. G3P1
- D. G2P1
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The client has been pregnant four times in all (gravidity). This client has delivered once (parity) and is currently pregnant, so the parity is 1. Although the client has been pregnant four times in all (gravidity), she would have had to deliver two fetuses over 20 weeks old, regardless of whether either fetus survived. The client has been pregnant four times in all, not three (gravidity). Parity of 1 is correct. The client has been pregnant four times in all, not two times (gravidity). Parity of 1 is correct.
Interventions have been prescribed by the HCP for the client with decreased fetal movement at 35 weeks’ gestation. Place the prescribed interventions in the sequence that they should be performed by the nurse.
- A. Prepare for a nonstress test
- B. Prepare for a biophysical profile
- C. Palpate for fetal movement
- D. Apply and explain the external fetal monitor
Correct Answer: C,D,A,B
Rationale: Palpate for fetal movement should be performed first. Assessment should be first to verify fetal movement. Apply and explain the external fetal monitor should be next. The fetus should be monitored for heart rate changes. Prepare for an NST. The NST is performed to determine fetal well-being. Prepare for a biophysical profile (BPP). The BPP is an assessment of five fetal biophysical variables: FHR acceleration, fetal breathing, fetal movements, fetal tone, and amniotic fluid volume. The first criterion is assessed with the NST. The other variables are assessed by ultrasound scanning.