At what age will vision be 20/20 in children?
- A. 4 years old
- B. 5 years old
- C. 6 years old
- D. 7 years old
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 6 years old. At this age, children typically have the potential for 20/20 vision. This is considered the standard age for achieving optimal vision clarity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with the age at which children achieve 20/20 vision.
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Which of the following symptoms is most characteristic of a client with lung cancer?
- A. exertional dyspnea
- B. persistent changing cough
- C. air hunger; dyspnea
- D. cough with night sweats
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most characteristic symptom of lung cancer is a persistent changing cough. This cough may worsen over time and may produce blood-tinged sputum. Exertional dyspnea (Choice A) is more common in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) due to airway obstruction. Air hunger and dyspnea (Choice C) are more typical of conditions like asthma. Cough with night sweats (Choice D) is commonly associated with tuberculosis rather than lung cancer.
A nurse is instructing a patient about the warning signs of Digitalis side effects. Which of the following side effects should the nurse tell the patient are sometimes associated with excessive levels of Digitalis?
- A. Seizures
- B. Muscle weakness
- C. Depression
- D. Anxiety
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Muscle weakness.' Palpitations and muscle weakness are commonly associated with excessive levels of Digitalis. Seizures, depression, and anxiety are not typically linked to Digitalis toxicity. Seizures could be more related to other medications or conditions, while depression and anxiety are not commonly reported side effects of Digitalis.
A patient who has delivered an 8.2 lb. baby boy 3 days ago via c-section, reports white patches on her breast that aren't going away. Which of the following medications may be necessary?
- A. Nystatin
- B. Atropine
- C. Amoxil
- D. Lortab
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient is likely experiencing thrush, a fungal infection, which can present as white patches on the breast that persist. Nystatin is an antifungal medication commonly used to treat thrush. Therefore, the correct answer is Nystatin. Atropine is not indicated for this condition and is used for different purposes. Amoxil is an antibiotic and would not be effective against a fungal infection like thrush. Lortab is a pain medication and is not appropriate for treating thrush.
A patient has just been prescribed Minipress to control hypertension. The nurse should instruct the patient to be observant of the following:
- A. Dizziness and light-headed sensations
- B. Weight gain
- C. Sensory changes in the lower extremities
- D. Fatigue
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Dizziness and light-headed sensations.' Minipress, a medication used to control hypertension, can cause hypotension as a side effect. Dizziness and light-headed sensations are common symptoms of hypotension. Weight gain, sensory changes in the lower extremities, and fatigue are not typically associated with Minipress or hypertension management. Therefore, they are incorrect choices.
A patient 3 hours post-op from a hysterectomy is complaining of intense pain at the incision site. When assessing the patient, the nurse notes a BP of 169/93, pulse 145 bpm, and regular. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Reassure the patient that pain is normal following surgery.
- B. Administer prn Nifedipine and assess the client's response.
- C. Administer prn Meperidine HCL and assess the client's response.
- D. Recheck BP and pulse rate every 20 minutes for the next hour.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to administer prn Meperidine HCL and assess the client's response. A BP of 169/93 and a pulse of 145 bpm indicate pain-related hypertension and sinus tachycardia, which are physiological responses to pain. Treating the cause of the increased pulse rate requires pain medication. Reassuring the patient about normal post-surgery pain is important, but addressing the physiological responses to pain is a priority. Administering Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, is not indicated for pain management but for hypertension. Rechecking the BP and pulse rate without addressing the pain directly does not address the underlying issue causing the elevated vital signs.