Nokea
At which point in the pregnancy are alveoli formed and fetal breathing movements noted?
- A. 12 weeks
- B. 6 weeks
- C. 20 weeks
- D. 24 weeks
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (24 weeks) because alveoli formation and fetal breathing movements are typically observed during the late second trimester, around 24 weeks. At this stage, the lungs have developed sufficiently to support breathing outside the womb. Choices A (12 weeks), B (6 weeks), and C (20 weeks) are incorrect because alveoli formation and breathing movements do not occur as early as these time points in the pregnancy. Fetal breathing movements are a crucial sign of lung maturation and readiness for extrauterine life, which is why the correct answer is 24 weeks.
You may also like to solve these questions
In presenting to obstetric nurses interested in genetics, the genetic nurse identifies the primary risk(s) associated with genetic testing as:
- A. Anxiety and altered family relationships.
- B. Denial of insurance benefits.
- C. High false-positive results associated with genetic testing.
- D. Ethnic and socioeconomic disparity associated with genetic testing.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Some types of genetic testing are expensive and are not covered by insurance benefits.
Why might a provider recommend percutaneous umbilical blood sampling? Select all that apply.
- A. an increased risk of Down syndrome shown on a previous scan
- B. to detect Down syndrome in the fetus, as this test provides the most accurate screening
- C. to check for genetic and chromosomal abnormalities the fetus is at high risk for
- D. to verify the blood type of the fetus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling is recommended to detect Down syndrome accurately by analyzing fetal blood. This is because it directly tests the fetal blood for chromosomal abnormalities like Down syndrome, providing a definitive diagnosis. Other choices are incorrect because A does not specify the need for a direct blood test, C is too general, and D can be determined using other non-invasive methods like amniocentesis.
What patient may need laparoscopic surgery?
- A. a patient with low antral follicle count
- B. a patient with an elevated prolactin level
- C. a patient with patent fallopian tubes on hysterosalpingogram
- D. a patient with suspected endometriosis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because laparoscopic surgery is commonly used to diagnose and treat endometriosis due to its ability to visualize and remove endometrial implants. Patients with suspected endometriosis often have symptoms like pelvic pain and infertility, making laparoscopy a suitable option for both diagnosis and treatment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not typically require laparoscopic surgery. Low antral follicle count and elevated prolactin levels are more related to infertility evaluations, while patent fallopian tubes on hysterosalpingogram indicate normal tubal patency and do not necessarily warrant laparoscopic intervention.
Upon receiving report on a 36-week G1P0 patient, the nurse has been informed that the pregnancy is at high risk because the umbilical cords may become entangled. Which does the nurse understand about this pregnancy?
- A. It is a diamnionic, monochorionic twin gestation.
- B. It is a monoamnionic, monochorionic twin gestation.
- C. It is a monoamnionic, dichorionic twin gestation.
- D. It is a diamnionic, dichorionic twin gestation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: It is a monoamnionic, monochorionic twin gestation. In this type of pregnancy, twins share the same amniotic sac (monoamnionic) and placenta (monochorionic). This situation increases the risk of cord entanglement, leading to potential complications. The other choices are incorrect because they do not describe a pregnancy with the same level of risk for cord entanglement. Choice A, diamnionic, monochorionic, implies two amniotic sacs, reducing the risk of cord entanglement. Choice C, monoamnionic, dichorionic, describes a less risky scenario with two separate placentas. Choice D, diamnionic, dichorionic, indicates two separate sacs and placentas, also reducing the risk of cord entanglement.
The upper uterus is the best place for the fertilized ovum to implant due to which anatomical adaptation?
- A. Maternal blood flow is lower.
- B. Placenta attaches most firmly.
- C. Uterine endometrium is softer.
- D. Developing baby is best nourishe
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the upper uterus provides the developing baby with the best nourishment due to increased blood flow and nutrient supply. This area allows for optimal growth and development of the fetus. Maternal blood flow is higher in the upper uterus, not lower (A). While the placenta attaches firmly in the upper uterus, it is not the main reason for the implantation site (B). The uterine endometrium is softer in the lower uterus, not the upper, making choice C incorrect. In summary, the upper uterus is ideal for implantation due to increased nourishment for the developing baby, making choice D the correct answer.