Axial filaments consist of
- A. proteins
- B. polyphosphates
- C. volutin granules
- D. carbohydrates
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Axial filaments, also known as endoflagella, are composed of proteins. These proteins form a helical structure that enables certain bacteria, such as spirochetes, to move in a corkscrew-like motion. Proteins are the main structural component of axial filaments due to their flexibility and ability to generate movement. Choice B, polyphosphates, are not typically associated with axial filaments, as they are more involved in energy storage and transfer. Choice C, volutin granules, are storage inclusions of inorganic polyphosphate and are not part of axial filaments. Choice D, carbohydrates, are not the primary component of axial filaments which are protein-based structures responsible for bacterial motility.
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Examination of duodenal contents revealed some pyriform protozoa with twin nuclei and four pairs of flagella. There were two supporting filaments between the nuclei and a suctorial disc on the ventral side. What representative of protozoa was revealed in this patient?
- A. Lamblia
- B. Toxoplasma
- C. Leishmania
- D. Intestinal trichomonad
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer A (Lamblia):
1. Pyriform protozoa with twin nuclei, four pairs of flagella, and a suctorial disc match the characteristics of Giardia lamblia.
2. The presence of two supporting filaments between the nuclei is a unique feature of Giardia lamblia.
3. Giardia lamblia is known to infect the duodenum and cause symptoms such as diarrhea and abdominal pain.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B: Toxoplasma - Toxoplasma gondii is not characterized by four pairs of flagella or supporting filaments in the nuclei.
C: Leishmania - Leishmania species do not typically have the described morphology or location in the duodenum.
D: Intestinal trichomonad - Intestinal trichomonads do not exhibit the specific features mentioned in the question, such as twin nuclei and supporting filaments.
A 35-year-old patient has been admitted to a hospital for pain in the left sternoclavicular and knee joints, lumbar area. The disease has an acute character and is accompanied by fever up to 38oC. Objectively: the left sternoclavicular and knee joints are swollen and painful. In blood: WBCs - 9, 5x109/l, ESR - 40 mm/h, CRP - 1,5 millimole/l, fibrinogen - 4,8 g/l, uric acid - 0,28 millimole/l. Examination of the urethra scrapings reveals chlamydia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Reiter's syndrome
- B. Rheumatic arthritis
- C. Gout
- D. Bechterew's disease
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is Reiter's syndrome. This is suggested by the presence of joint pain, fever, elevated ESR and CRP levels, and chlamydia infection. Reiter's syndrome is a reactive arthritis triggered by an infection elsewhere in the body, such as chlamydia. The patient's symptoms of joint pain and swelling, along with the positive chlamydia test, support this diagnosis. Rheumatic arthritis (Choice B) is not associated with chlamydia infection, making it less likely. Gout (Choice C) typically presents with elevated uric acid levels, which are normal in this case. Bechterew's disease (Choice D) primarily affects the spine and sacroiliac joints, not the sternoclavicular and knee joints as seen in this patient.
Streptococcus pyogenes releases:
- A. Enterotoxin
- B. Streptolysin
- C. Staphylocoagulase
- D. None of the above
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Streptolysin. Streptolysin is a toxin released by Streptococcus pyogenes that causes lysis of red blood cells and contributes to the pathogenicity of the bacteria. Enterotoxin (Choice A) is typically produced by Staphylococcus aureus, not Streptococcus pyogenes. Staphylocoagulase (Choice C) is an enzyme produced by Staphylococcus aureus to promote blood clot formation and is not associated with Streptococcus pyogenes. Therefore, the correct answer is B as Streptolysin is the toxin released by Streptococcus pyogenes.
A sputum smear from a patient with pneumonia revealed Gram-positive diplococci with a capsule. What is the most likely causative agent?
- A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
- B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
- C. Neisseria meningitidis
- D. Staphylococcus aureus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium is a common cause of pneumonia and is characterized by Gram-positive diplococci with a capsule. The presence of a capsule helps the bacterium evade the immune system and contributes to its virulence. Klebsiella pneumoniae (B) is a Gram-negative bacterium and does not typically have a capsule. Neisseria meningitidis (C) is a Gram-negative diplococcus and is associated with meningitis, not pneumonia. Staphylococcus aureus (D) is a Gram-positive bacterium, but it does not typically present as diplococci with a capsule in a sputum smear from a pneumonia patient.
Which of the following best describes bacterial conjugation?
- A. Transfer of DNA through a sex pilus
- B. Uptake of free DNA from the environment
- C. Transfer of DNA by bacteriophages
- D. Binary fission
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because bacterial conjugation involves the transfer of genetic material through a sex pilus from a donor bacterium to a recipient bacterium. This process allows for the exchange of genetic material and can lead to increased genetic diversity within bacterial populations.
Option B is incorrect because the uptake of free DNA from the environment is known as transformation, not conjugation. Option C is incorrect as transfer of DNA by bacteriophages is called transduction, not conjugation. Option D is incorrect because binary fission is a form of asexual reproduction in bacteria, not a mechanism for genetic exchange.