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Barbiturate anticonvulsants are effective in treating all of these seizure types, except:
- A. partial seizures.
- B. febrile seizures.
- C. tonic-clonic seizures.
- D. absence seizures.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: absence seizures. Barbiturate anticonvulsants are not effective in treating absence seizures because they can worsen this type of seizure by suppressing brain activity. Barbiturates are typically used to treat tonic-clonic seizures and partial seizures, but not absence seizures. Febrile seizures are typically managed without barbiturate anticonvulsants. In summary, barbiturate anticonvulsants are effective in treating partial seizures and tonic-clonic seizures, but not absence seizures or febrile seizures due to their mechanisms of action and potential side effects.
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Which of the ff conditions are more likely to develop in a client who is relatively immobile for the rest of his or her life? Choose all that apply
- A. Bladder infection
- B. Constipation
- C. Calculus information
- D. Bladder inflammation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bladder infection. Immobility can lead to urinary stasis, causing bacteria to multiply in the bladder, leading to a higher risk of bladder infections.
B: Constipation can also occur due to immobility, but it is not directly related to the urinary system.
C: Calculus formation is more related to factors like diet and hydration, not immobility.
D: Bladder inflammation can be a result of infection but is not as directly linked to immobility as bladder infections.
Then the drug is stopped. When should treatment resume?
- A. When the WBC falls to 5,000mm3
- B. When the WBC count rises to
- C. When lost hair begins to grow back 50,000/mm3
- D. When the client displays anemia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the drug should be resumed when the WBC count falls to 5,000mm3 to ensure the client's safety and efficacy of treatment. This criterion indicates that the client's immune system has recovered sufficiently to tolerate the drug. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly correlate with the client's immune system recovery, which is crucial for drug tolerance. Choice B focuses on the rise in WBC count, not the fall to a specific level. Choice C is related to a cosmetic side effect, not clinical readiness. Choice D is unrelated to immune system recovery.
A client has a serum calcium level of 7.2mg/dl. During the physical examination, the nurse expects to assess:
- A. Trousseau’s sign
- B. Hegar’s sign
- C. Homan’s sign
- D. Goodell’s sign
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trousseau's sign. A serum calcium level of 7.2mg/dl indicates hypocalcemia. Trousseau's sign is a clinical manifestation of hypocalcemia, characterized by carpal spasm induced by inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure. This occurs due to increased neuromuscular excitability from low calcium levels. Hegar's sign (B) is associated with pregnancy, Homan's sign (C) is a clinical test for deep vein thrombosis, and Goodell's sign (D) is a softening of the cervix during pregnancy. These signs are not relevant to a client with hypocalcemia.
Another girl was bitten by a poisonous snake. All of the following are true except
- A. The victim of a snake bite should be made to exercise the bitten extremity to hasten circulation
- B. The bite of a poisonous snake is distinguished by two fang marks
- C. Immediate severe pain and swelling distinguished the bite of a poisonous snake
- D. The tourniquet should be tight enough to prevent superficial circulation of blood thus stopping absorption of the poison
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because exercising the bitten extremity can increase the spread of the venom. Choice B is correct as poisonous snake bites typically leave two fang marks. Choice C is correct as immediate severe pain and swelling are common symptoms of a poisonous snake bite. Choice D is incorrect as a tourniquet should not be used for snake bites as it can lead to complications such as tissue damage and increased risk of infection.
A nurse is providing education to a patient about self-administering subcutaneous injections. The patient demonstrates the self-injection. Which type of indicator did the nurse evaluate?
- A. Health status NursingStoreRN
- B. Health behavior
- C. Psychological self-control
- D. Health service utilization
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Health behavior. Evaluating the patient's demonstration of self-injection assesses their ability to perform a specific health-related action. This choice focuses on the patient's actions and behaviors related to their health, aligning with the scenario provided.
Choice A: Health status is incorrect because it refers to the patient's current physical condition, not their ability to perform a specific health action.
Choice C: Psychological self-control is incorrect as it pertains to the patient's ability to regulate their emotions and impulses, not their ability to self-administer injections.
Choice D: Health service utilization is incorrect as it relates to the frequency and pattern of healthcare services used by the patient, not their ability to perform a specific health behavior.