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Based on the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection, which intervention is best for the nurse to implement when providing care for an older incontinent client?
- A. Maintain standard precautions.
- B. Initiate contact isolation measures.
- C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
- D. Instruct the client in the use of adult diapers.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection in an older incontinent client is to maintain standard precautions. The best way to reduce the risk of infection in vulnerable clients is through proper handwashing and adherence to standard precautions. Option B, initiating contact isolation measures, is excessive unless the client has a confirmed infection requiring isolation. Option C, inserting an indwelling urinary catheter, actually increases the risk of infection due to the introduction of a foreign body. Option D, instructing the client in the use of adult diapers, does not directly address the risk of infection and is not as effective as maintaining standard precautions in preventing infection transmission.
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A 20-year-old female client with noticeable body odor has refused to shower for the last 3 days. She states, 'I have been told that it is harmful to bathe during my period.' Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Accept and document the client's wish to refrain from bathing.
- B. Offer to give the client a bed bath, avoiding the perineal area.
- C. Obtain written brochures about menstruation to give to the client.
- D. Teach the importance of personal hygiene during menstruation to the client.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to teach the importance of personal hygiene during menstruation to the client. While respecting the client's beliefs, it is essential to provide education on maintaining hygiene during menstruation. This empowers the client with knowledge to make informed decisions. Options A and B can be considered after providing education. Option C, obtaining brochures, is not the priority as direct communication and teaching would be more effective in addressing the client's concerns.
After a needle stick occurs while removing the cap from a sterile needle, which action should the nurse take?
- A. Complete an incident report.
- B. Select another sterile needle.
- C. Disinfect the needle with an alcohol swab.
- D. Notify the supervisor of the department immediately.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: After a needle stick, the needle is considered contaminated and should be discarded. The nurse should select another sterile needle to use. Completing an incident report is not necessary in this situation because the needle was sterile when the nurse was stuck and not in contact with any other person's body fluids. Notifying the supervisor immediately is not required as the situation can be managed by selecting a new needle. Disinfecting the needle with an alcohol swab is not recommended as it does not meet the standards of safe practice and infection control.
The nurse plans to administer diazepam, 4 mg IV push, to a client with severe anxiety. How many milliliters should the nurse administer? (Round to the nearest tenth.)
- A. 0.2 mL
- B. 0.8 mL
- C. 1.25 mL
- D. 2.0 mL
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer, use the formula: (Volume to administer = (Ordered Dose × Volume on hand) / Dose on hand). In this case, it would be (4 mg × 1 mL) / 5 mg = 0.8 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.8 mL of diazepam. Choice A (0.2 mL) is incorrect because it miscalculates the dosage. Choice C (1.25 mL) and Choice D (2.0 mL) are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the ordered dose and available concentration. The correct answer, 0.8 mL, is derived from accurate dosage calculation and aligns with the formula for IV medication administration, ensuring the safe and effective delivery of the medication to the client.
A client's blood pressure reading is 156/94 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Inform the client that the blood pressure is high and compare the reading with the client's previously documented blood pressure readings for accuracy.
- B. Contact the health care provider to report the reading and obtain a prescription for an antihypertensive medication.
- C. Replace the cuff with a larger one to ensure a proper fit for the client and increase arm comfort during blood pressure measurement.
- D. Compare the current reading with the client's previously documented blood pressure readings.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first when a client's blood pressure reading is 156/94 mm Hg is to compare the current reading with the client's previously documented readings. This comparison helps determine whether the current reading is abnormal for the client. Option A, which involves informing the client that the blood pressure is high and comparing it with the previous readings, is appropriate as it educates the client and aids in accurate assessment. Option B, contacting the health care provider for medication, is premature without further assessment. Option C, replacing the cuff with a larger one, is incorrect as it may affect the accuracy of the blood pressure measurement and is not a standard practice for managing high blood pressure readings.
The nurse is caring for a client with a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus. The nurse should recognize that which teaching plan component is most important initially?
- A. Knowledge of the diabetic diet
- B. Understanding of the diagnosis
- C. Monitoring of blood glucose levels
- D. Correct technique for administering insulin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Before educating about a disease process, it is important that the client understands the components of the disease process. After this teaching, the actual components of diet, blood glucose testing, and insulin injections can be taught.