Basophilic stippling is classically seen in:
- A. CML
- B. myelosclerosis
- C. chronic lead poisoning
- D. iron def anemia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Basophilic stippling refers to the presence of blue-staining granules in red blood cells, which is a classic finding in chronic lead poisoning due to the inhibition of heme synthesis. In CML, the primary feature is the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome. Myelosclerosis is characterized by bone marrow fibrosis, not basophilic stippling. Iron deficiency anemia typically presents with microcytic hypochromic red blood cells, not basophilic stippling. Therefore, the correct answer is C: chronic lead poisoning.
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You are discussing prognosis with the mother of a patient with stage 3, group III rhabdomyosarcoma. Which of the following is the most unfavorable primary site?
- A. Extremity
- B. Prostate
- C. Infratemporal fossa
- D. Neck
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Extremity. Rhabdomyosarcoma has a better prognosis when located in the extremities compared to other sites due to easier surgical resection and less risk of metastasis. Prostate (B) is less common in children and has a poorer prognosis. Infratemporal fossa (C) and neck (D) sites have a higher risk of local invasion and metastasis, leading to a worse prognosis compared to extremity sites.
An older client asks the nurse why 'people my age' have weaker immune systems than younger people. What responses by the nurse are best? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Bone marrow produces more blood cells as you age.'
- B. You may have decreased levels of circulating platelets.'
- C. You have lower levels of plasma proteins in the blood.'
- D. Lymphocytes become more reactive to antigens.'
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'You have lower levels of plasma proteins in the blood.' As we age, there is a decline in the production of plasma proteins, which play a crucial role in immune function. These proteins help fight infections and regulate immune responses. Lower levels can weaken the immune system's ability to respond effectively to pathogens.
Choice A is incorrect because while bone marrow does produce blood cells, it does not directly relate to the weakening of the immune system with age. Choice B is incorrect as decreased platelet levels primarily affect blood clotting, not immune function. Choice D is incorrect because lymphocytes becoming more reactive to antigens is not a characteristic of aging immune systems.
A nurse is caring for a client who has renal failure and is receiving epoetin. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Muscle pain
- C. Edema
- D. Dry mouth
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Epoetin is a medication used to stimulate red blood cell production in patients with renal failure. One of the potential adverse effects of epoetin therapy is an increase in blood pressure due to the rapid rise in red blood cell count. This can lead to hypertension. Monitoring for hypertension is crucial to prevent any complications. The other choices, muscle pain, edema, and dry mouth, are not directly associated with epoetin therapy in renal failure patients. Muscle pain could be a general issue but not specific to this medication. Edema is more commonly associated with fluid retention in renal failure, and dry mouth is not a typical adverse effect of epoetin therapy.
Bone marrow responds to iron therapy by increasing erythropoietic activity. Which of the following in bone marrow would most likely indicate erythropoiesis?
- A. Myelocytes
- B. Reticulocytes
- C. Ring sideroblasts
- D. Target cells
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Bone marrow increases erythropoiesis in response to iron therapy.
2. Reticulocytes are immature red blood cells derived from erythroblasts, indicating active erythropoiesis.
3. Myelocytes are precursors of granulocytes, not involved in erythropoiesis.
4. Ring sideroblasts are abnormal erythroblasts with iron granules, not indicative of active erythropoiesis.
5. Target cells are red blood cells with central "target-like" appearance due to excess membrane, not directly related to erythropoiesis.
You are discussing prognosis with the mother of a patient with stage 3, group III rhabdomyosarcoma. Which of the following is the most unfavorable primary site?
- A. Extremity
- B. Prostate
- C. Infratemporal fossa
- D. Neck
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Extremity. Rhabdomyosarcoma in extremities has a worse prognosis due to difficulties in achieving complete surgical resection and higher risk of metastasis. Extremity tumors are often larger and more challenging to remove completely, leading to a higher chance of recurrence and poor outcomes. Prostate (B) and neck (D) sites are more favorable as they are easier to access for surgery and have lower rates of metastasis. Infratemporal fossa (C) is also a difficult site, but extremity tumors generally have a worse prognosis due to their anatomical and surgical challenges.