Before administering a food feeding the nurse knows to perform which of the following assessments/
- A. The GI tract, including bowel sounds, last BM, and distention f. The client’s neurologic status, especially the gag reflex
- B. The amount of air in the stomach
- C. That the formula is used directly from the refrigerator
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because assessing the GI tract is crucial before feeding to ensure proper digestion and absorption. Bowel sounds, last BM, and distention indicate GI function. The client's neurologic status and gag reflex are important to prevent aspiration. Option B is not a primary concern before feeding. Option C is incorrect as formula should be warmed to room temperature before feeding.
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Following hypophysectomy, patients require extensive teaching regarding this major alteration in their lifestyle
- A. Abnormal distribution of body hair
- B. Lifetime dependency on hormone replacement
- C. The need to drink many fluids to replace those lost
- D. The need to undergo repeat surgical procedures
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (Lifetime dependency on hormone replacement) because after hypophysectomy (removal of the pituitary gland), patients will no longer produce essential hormones like growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, etc. Therefore, they will require lifelong hormone replacement therapy to maintain normal bodily functions.
A: Abnormal distribution of body hair is not directly related to hypophysectomy.
C: While fluid intake may be important post-surgery, it is not the primary focus of teaching.
D: There is typically no need for repeat surgical procedures after a hypophysectomy, as it is a one-time surgery to address specific issues.
In summary, choice B is correct as it directly addresses the long-term implications of the surgery on hormone production and the need for replacement therapy, while the other choices are not directly relevant to the post-operative care of hypophysectomy patients.
A 50-year-old African American patient is diagnosed with anemia. Where can the nurse assess for pallor?
- A. Scalp
- B. Chest
- C. Axillae
- D. Conjunctivae
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Conjunctivae. Pallor is best assessed in the conjunctivae due to the transparent nature of the tissue, allowing for easy observation of paleness. The conjunctivae are the mucous membranes lining the inner surface of the eyelids and covering the sclera. Anemia can cause decreased hemoglobin levels, resulting in paleness of the mucous membranes. Assessing the scalp (A), chest (B), or axillae (C) may not provide a clear indication of pallor related to anemia. The conjunctivae offer a direct and reliable site to assess for pallor in patients with anemia.
The nurse is gathering data on a patient. Which data will the nurse report as objective data?
- A. States “doesn’t feel good”
- B. Reports a headache
- C. Respirations 16
- D. Nauseated
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Objective data are measurable and observable, such as vital signs. Respirations of 16 are a specific numerical measurement that can be quantified. This makes choice C the correct answer as it is factual and quantifiable. Choices A, B, and D are subjective data, as they rely on the patient's feelings or experiences, which are open to interpretation and not measurable. Therefore, the nurse should report choice C as objective data as it provides concrete information for assessment and decision-making.
Which of the ff factors predisposes a client to the development of TB?
- A. Exposure to toxic gases
- B. Congenital abnormalities
- C. Obstruction by tumor
- D. Malnutrition
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Malnutrition. Malnutrition weakens the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to contracting tuberculosis. A well-nourished individual has a stronger immune response to fight off TB bacteria. Exposure to toxic gases (A), congenital abnormalities (B), and obstruction by tumor (C) do not directly predispose a client to TB. Malnutrition is the key factor as it impairs the immune system's ability to combat the TB bacteria effectively.
Which patient should be monitored most closely for dehydration?
- A. The 50-year-old with an ileostomy
- B. The 72-year-old with diabetes mellitus
- C. The 19-year-old with chronic asthma
- D. The 28-year-old with a broken femur
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, the 50-year-old with an ileostomy, should be monitored most closely for dehydration. Patients with an ileostomy have a higher risk of dehydration due to increased fluid loss through the stoma. Monitoring their fluid intake, output, electrolyte levels, and signs of dehydration is crucial to prevent complications. The other choices are less likely to experience severe dehydration compared to the patient with an ileostomy. The 72-year-old with diabetes mellitus may be at risk for dehydration, but it is not as high a risk as the patient with an ileostomy. The 19-year-old with chronic asthma and the 28-year-old with a broken femur are not as directly related to dehydration compared to the patient with an ileostomy.