Nokea
Benzodiazepine′s usefulness is limited by:
- A. Tolerance
- B. Atropine-like symptoms
- C. Psychotic episodes
- D. Myasthenic syndrome
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tolerance. Benzodiazepines are known to lead to tolerance, meaning that over time, the body requires higher doses to achieve the same effect. This limits their usefulness as long-term treatment options. Atropine-like symptoms (B) are not associated with benzodiazepines. Psychotic episodes (C) and myasthenic syndrome (D) are also not common side effects of benzodiazepines. Therefore, the correct answer is A as tolerance limits the effectiveness of benzodiazepines over time.
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Which of the following agents is an alfa2-selective agonist with ability to promote constriction of the nasal mucosa?
- A. Xylometazoline
- B. Phenylephrine
- C. Methoxamine
- D. Epinephrine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Xylometazoline. Xylometazoline is an alpha2-selective agonist, which means it specifically targets alpha2-adrenergic receptors. By activating these receptors, xylometazoline promotes constriction of the nasal mucosa, leading to reduced swelling and congestion. Phenylephrine (B) and methoxamine (C) are alpha1-selective agonists, not alpha2-selective, so they would not promote constriction of nasal mucosa. Epinephrine (D) is a non-selective agonist that acts on both alpha and beta receptors, leading to a broader range of effects, not specifically nasal constriction.
All of the following statements concerning the general principles of therapy with lipid-lowering drugs are true EXCEPT:
- A. Therapy with a lipid-lowering drug should be always accompanied by an appropriate diet
- B. A lipid-lowering diet should be discontinued if it fails to decrease the levels of plasma LDL cholesterol by at least 10%
- C. Lipid-lowering drugs should only be administered after at least 3 months of prior dietary therapy
- D. Some combinations of lipid-lowering drugs are synergistic
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because discontinuing a lipid-lowering diet solely based on the immediate reduction in plasma LDL cholesterol levels by 10% is not appropriate. The efficacy of a diet in managing lipid levels should be evaluated over a longer period, considering other factors like overall cardiovascular health and risk factors. Choosing to discontinue the diet based solely on the short-term reduction in LDL cholesterol levels can lead to overlooking other important aspects of cardiovascular health.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect:
A: This statement is true because combining lipid-lowering drugs with an appropriate diet can enhance the overall effectiveness of therapy in managing lipid levels.
C: This statement is also true as dietary interventions are usually recommended as the first-line approach before resorting to pharmacological therapy.
D: This statement is true as certain combinations of lipid-lowering drugs can indeed work synergistically to achieve better outcomes in managing lipid levels.
General contraindications for anticancer drugs are:
- A. Depression of bone marrow
- B. Acute infections
- C. Severe hepatic and/or renal insufficiency
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. General contraindications for anticancer drugs include depression of bone marrow, which can lead to decreased production of blood cells; acute infections, as these drugs can further compromise the immune system; and severe hepatic and/or renal insufficiency, as these organs are responsible for drug metabolism and elimination. These contraindications are crucial to consider to prevent further harm to the patient. Choices A, B, and C individually are incorrect because they do not encompass all the general contraindications associated with anticancer drugs.
Which of the following NSAIDs is an indol derivative?
- A. Ibuprofen
- B. Indomethacin
- C. Meclofenamic acid
- D. Diclofenac
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Indomethacin is an indol derivative due to its chemical structure containing an indole ring.
2. Ibuprofen is a propionic acid derivative, not an indol derivative.
3. Meclofenamic acid is a fenamic acid derivative, not an indol derivative.
4. Diclofenac is an acetic acid derivative, not an indol derivative.
Summary:
B (Indomethacin) is the correct answer as it is the only option that is an indol derivative. A, C, and D are incorrect as they belong to different chemical classes.
The toxic effects of a large dose of nicotine include all of the following EXCEPT:
- A. Hypotension and bradycardia
- B. Convulsions coma and respiratory arrest
- C. Skeletal muscle depolarization blockade and respiratory paralysis
- D. Hypertension and cardiac arrhythmias
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension and bradycardia. Nicotine is a stimulant that typically causes hypertension and tachycardia due to its effects on the sympathetic nervous system. Therefore, hypotension and bradycardia are not consistent with the toxic effects of nicotine. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because convulsions, coma, respiratory arrest, skeletal muscle depolarization blockade, respiratory paralysis, hypertension, and cardiac arrhythmias are all potential toxic effects of a large dose of nicotine due to its impact on various physiological systems.