Nokea
Bulimia is best defined as a /an _____.
- A. disorder of the unknown origin associated with starving oneself
- B. pathological disorder of binging and vomiting
- C. phobic disorder of fear of obesity
- D. eating disorder associated with vomiting
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bulimia nervosa is best defined as a pathological disorder involving recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by inappropriate compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain, such as self-induced vomiting, excessive exercise, or misuse of laxatives. It is categorized as an eating disorder rather than a phobic disorder as it involves behaviors related to food consumption and body image, not just fears or phobias. Bulimia is not solely associated with starving oneself, as individuals with bulimia tend to consume large amounts of food during binge episodes. Therefore, the most accurate definition of bulimia is a pathological disorder of binging and vomiting.
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Some common examples of screening tests are the following, EXCEPT ________.
- A. Pap smears for cervical cancer screening in women.
- B. Cholesterol levels in heart disease screening.
- C. PSA levels for prostate CA in men.
- D. Urinalysis for male and female clients.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: While urinalysis can provide valuable information about a person's health status and can be part of a clinical assessment, it is not typically considered a common screening test for specific diseases or conditions. The other options listed - Pap smears for cervical cancer screening, cholesterol levels for heart disease screening, and PSA levels for prostate cancer screening - are all commonly used screening tests aimed at early detection of specific diseases. Urinalysis is more commonly used as part of a broader health assessment or diagnostic evaluation rather than a dedicated screening tool for a specific condition.
A patient admitted to the ICU develops acute pancreatitis with severe abdominal pain and elevated pancreatic enzymes. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's pancreatitis?
- A. Administer intravenous fluids to maintain adequate hydration.
- B. Perform an abdominal ultrasound to assess pancreatic morphology.
- C. Implement total parenteral nutrition (TPN) to meet nutritional needs.
- D. Recommend proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) for gastric acid suppression.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The priority intervention in managing acute pancreatitis is to administer intravenous fluids to maintain adequate hydration. Acute pancreatitis can lead to significant fluid loss and dehydration due to factors such as vomiting and third-spacing of fluids into the retroperitoneal space. Adequate hydration helps to optimize perfusion to the pancreas, prevent hypovolemic shock, and support overall organ function. This intervention also aids in flushing out inflammatory mediators and preventing complications such as acute kidney injury. Monitoring fluid status and adjusting the rate of intravenous fluid administration based on the patient's response is crucial in the management of acute pancreatitis. While other interventions such as imaging studies, nutritional support, and gastric acid suppression may be important in managing acute pancreatitis, ensuring adequate hydration is the most critical initial step.
The nurse educator Adalynn reviewed the risk factors for postpartum hemorrhage for the mothers. Which of the following factors IS NOT included ____?
- A. ruptured uterus
- B. uterine atony
- C. overdistended uterus
- D. retroversion of the uterus
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) is a significant complication after childbirth. The risk factors for PPH that are typically included in the list are uterine atony, overdistended uterus (e.g., multiple gestation or polyhydramnios), and ruptured uterus. Retroversion of the uterus is not a known risk factor for PPH. Retroversion refers to the position of the uterus, where it is tilted back towards the rectum. While retroverted uterus can sometimes lead to other issues or complications during pregnancy, it is not directly associated with an increased risk of postpartum hemorrhage.
A woman in active labor experiences frequent and intense uterine contractions with minimal rest intervals, leading to maternal fatigue and decreased fetal oxygenation. What maternal condition should the nurse assess for that may contribute to this abnormal labor pattern?
- A. Maternal dehydration
- B. Uterine hyperstimulation
- C. Pelvic outlet obstruction
- D. Maternal exhaustion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Uterine hyperstimulation is a condition in which the uterus contracts too frequently or too intensely, leading to decreased blood flow and oxygenation to the placenta. This can result in maternal fatigue and decreased fetal oxygenation due to the lack of sufficient rest intervals between contractions. Uterine hyperstimulation can be caused by factors such as the use of synthetic oxytocin (Pitocin) to induce or augment labor, uterine abnormalities, or maternal conditions like pre-eclampsia. It is important for the nurse to assess for uterine hyperstimulation in a woman experiencing frequent and intense contractions to intervene promptly and prevent adverse outcomes for both the mother and the baby.
Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG), the biologic marker on which pregnancy tests are based, can be detected in the BLOOD as early as which nber of DAYS after the last menstrual period?
- A. 15
- B. 10
- C. 20
- D. 5
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) can be detected in the blood as early as 10 days after the last menstrual period. This hormone is produced by the placenta shortly after the embryo attaches to the uterine lining. Pregnancy tests detect HCG levels to determine pregnancy status, and the hormone can be detected earlier in the blood compared to urine tests. Detecting HCG in the blood at around 10 days post ovulation is often the earliest point when a blood test can confirm pregnancy.