Nokea
C6PD reflect false normal report in:
- A. iron def .an.
- B. hypoplastic an.
- C. hairy cell leuk.
- D. shortly after haemolysis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because individuals with G6PD deficiency can have normal enzyme levels shortly after a hemolytic episode due to the body replenishing the enzyme. Choice A, iron deficiency anemia, is unrelated to G6PD deficiency. Choice B, hypoplastic anemia, does not affect enzyme levels. Choice C, hairy cell leukemia, is not typically associated with false-normal G6PD levels. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it reflects the transient nature of G6PD levels post-hemolysis.
You may also like to solve these questions
The nurse is reviewing the activated partial thromboplastin time for a patient receiving heparin. Which value indicates that the medication is within the therapeutic range?
- A. 2.5 to 9.5 minutes
- B. 9.5 to 11.3 seconds
- C. 1.5 to 2.0 times normal
- D. 2.0 to 3.0 times normal
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (1.5 to 2.0 times normal) because the therapeutic range for heparin therapy is typically considered to be 1.5 to 2.0 times the normal control value for activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). This range ensures adequate anticoagulation to prevent clot formation without increasing the risk of bleeding. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they provide ranges that are either too short or too long for the therapeutic goal of heparin therapy. Option A (2.5 to 9.5 minutes) and Option D (2.0 to 3.0 times normal) are outside the typical therapeutic range for heparin, indicating subtherapeutic and supratherapeutic levels, respectively. Option B (9.5 to 11.3 seconds) is also incorrect as it reflects a range for prothrombin time (PT) rather than aPTT.
A 77-year-old male is admitted to a unit with a suspected diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia (AML). When planning this patient's care, the nurse should be aware of what epidemiologic fact?
- A. Early diagnosis is associated with good outcomes.
- B. Five-year survival for older adults is approximately 50%.
- C. Five-year survival for patients over 75 years old is less than 2%.
- D. Survival rates are wholly dependent on the patient's pre-illness level of health.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Five-year survival for patients over 75 years old is less than 2%. This is because older age is a significant risk factor for poorer outcomes in acute myeloid leukemia (AML) due to factors such as frailty, comorbidities, and reduced tolerance to aggressive treatments. Older adults are less likely to tolerate intensive chemotherapy and have lower overall survival rates compared to younger patients.
Choice A is incorrect because early diagnosis alone does not guarantee good outcomes in AML, especially in older adults. Choice B is incorrect because the five-year survival rate for older adults with AML is much lower than 50%. Choice D is incorrect because while pre-illness health may influence survival rates, age is a more significant factor in predicting outcomes in older patients with AML.
Which of the following requires IL-2 and IL-4 in the conversion of unilineage progenitor cell into mature circulating cell?
- A. Neutrophil
- B. Eosinophil
- C. Basophil
- D. B lymphocyte
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: B lymphocyte. IL-2 and IL-4 are essential for the differentiation of B lymphocytes from unilineage progenitor cells into mature circulating cells. IL-2 is crucial for B cell proliferation and survival, while IL-4 is required for B cell activation and class switching. Neutrophils do not require IL-2 and IL-4 for differentiation. Eosinophils are primarily influenced by IL-5. Basophils are influenced by IL-3 and IL-5. Therefore, B lymphocytes are the only cell type among the choices that specifically requires IL-2 and IL-4 for their maturation.
A 9-month-old boy has been referred to you for the evaluation of an enlarged abdomen. Imaging studies show a large liver mass (PRETEXT III). Alfa-fetoprotein is 98 ng/mL, and a CT scan of the lungs show bilateral lung metastases. A needle biopsy is performed, and you are planning to review the specimen with the pathologist. Which of the following diagnoses are you suspecting?
- A. Pure fetal histology hepatoblastoma
- B. Embryonal sarcoma of the liver
- C. Fibrolamellar hepatocellular carcinoma
- D. Small cell undifferentiated hepatoblastoma
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Small cell undifferentiated hepatoblastoma. In hepatoblastoma, the presence of lung metastases indicates a high-risk tumor. The small cell undifferentiated subtype is more aggressive with a poorer prognosis compared to other subtypes. The AFP level is lower than typically seen in hepatoblastoma, but still within the range for this diagnosis. Pure fetal histology hepatoblastoma (choice A) is less common and usually associated with a better prognosis. Embryonal sarcoma of the liver (choice B) is a distinct entity with different histological features. Fibrolamellar hepatocellular carcinoma (choice C) typically occurs in older children and has a different imaging appearance.
Thrombocytopenia is absent in:
- A. DIC
- B. Wiskott Aldrich syndrome
- C. Henoch Schonlein purpura
- D. myelosclerosis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Thrombocytopenia is absent in Henoch Schonlein purpura because it primarily involves vasculitis, not platelet destruction or consumption. In DIC (A), there is widespread activation of coagulation leading to thrombocytopenia. Wiskott Aldrich syndrome (B) is characterized by low platelet counts due to defective platelet function. Myelosclerosis (D) is a bone marrow disorder causing decreased platelet production, leading to thrombocytopenia.