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Cabot has multiple symptoms of depression including mood reactivity, social phobia, anxiety, and overeating. With a history of mild hypertension, which classification of antidepressants dispensed as a transdermal patch would be a safe medication?
- A. Tricyclic antidepressants
- B. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
- C. Serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors
- D. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
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James is a 42-year-old patient with schizophrenia. He approaches you as you arrive for the day shift and anxiously reports, 'Last night, demons came to my room and tried to rape me.' Which response would be most therapeutic?
- A. There are no such things as demons. What you saw were hallucinations.
- B. It is not possible for anyone to enter your room at night. You are safe here.
- C. You seem very upset. Please tell me more about what you experienced last night.
- D. That must have been very frightening, but we'll check on you at night and you'll be safe.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Response C is the most therapeutic as it shows empathy and encourages the patient to express their feelings and share more about their experience. By actively listening and inviting the patient to talk, the nurse creates a supportive environment that can help the patient feel heard and understood, which is essential in building trust and rapport in therapeutic communication with individuals experiencing schizophrenia.
Natasha's husband died suddenly two months ago, and she has been overwhelmed with grief. When Natasha is subsequently diagnosed with major depressive disorder, her daughter, Nadia, makes which true statement?
- A. Depression often begins after a major loss. Losing dad was a major loss.
- B. Bereavement and depression are the same problem.
- C. Mourning is pathological and not normal behavior.
- D. Antidepressant medications will not help this type of depression.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When individuals experience a significant loss, such as the death of a loved one, it can trigger major depressive disorder. This is because the intense grief and sadness associated with the loss can lead to the development of depressive symptoms. Therefore, Nadia's statement that 'Depression often begins after a major loss' is accurate in this context.
Why is it important to establish a contract with a client with an eating disorder at the beginning of treatment?
- A. The client and healthcare provider form a partnership that is challenging for the family to disrupt.
- B. A collaborative approach to treatment planning ensures that both physical and emotional needs will be addressed.
- C. Involving the client in decision-making enhances the feeling of control and fosters cooperation.
- D. Permission for refeeding is crucial as it can have adverse effects.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Establishing a contract with a client with an eating disorder at the start of treatment is crucial to involve the client in decision-making processes. By engaging the client in decision-making, it enhances their sense of control over their treatment, which can lead to increased cooperation and better treatment outcomes. This collaborative approach empowers the client and fosters a therapeutic alliance between the client and the healthcare provider, rather than excluding the family or causing disruptions. It focuses on addressing both the physical and emotional needs of the client, ensuring a comprehensive treatment plan.
When using therapeutic communication with a withdrawn patient who has major depression, an effective method of managing the silence is to:
- A. Engage in a quiet meditation
- B. Ask simple questions even if the patient will not answer
- C. Use the technique of making observations
- D. Simply sit quietly and leave when the patient falls asleep
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Using the technique of making observations is an effective method of managing silence when communicating with a withdrawn patient who has major depression. This approach can encourage the patient to engage and feel understood without the pressure to respond, fostering a therapeutic connection and helping the patient open up at their own pace.
Ted, a former executive, is now unemployed due to manic episodes at work. He was diagnosed with bipolar I 8 years ago. Ted has a history of IV drug abuse, which resulted in hepatitis C. He is taking his lithium exactly as scheduled, a fact that both Ted's wife and his blood tests confirm. To reduce Ted's mania, the psychiatric nurse practitioner recommends:
- A. Clonazepam (Klonopin)
- B. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
- C. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
- D. Lurasidone (Latuda)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) can be an effective treatment for reducing mania in patients with bipolar disorder who have not responded to medication. In Ted's case, where he has a history of bipolar I disorder, lithium treatment, and manic episodes, ECT may be recommended by the psychiatric nurse practitioner to help manage his symptoms.