Choose the correct sequence of events in the post-fertilization cleavage process.
- A. Zygote - morula- 2 cells- 4 cells- 8 cells- blastula
- B. 2 cells- 4 cells- 8 cells- zygote- morula- blastul
- C. Zygote- 2 cells- 4 cells- 8 cells- morula- blastul
- D. 8 cells-4 cells-2 cells-morula-zygote-blastula
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct sequence is A: Zygote - morula - 2 cells - 4 cells - 8 cells - blastula. After fertilization, the zygote undergoes cleavage to form the morula, which then divides into 2 cells, then 4 cells, and further into 8 cells. These cells then rearrange to form the blastula. This sequence aligns with the natural progression of post-fertilization cleavage in embryonic development.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the correct chronological order of events in post-fertilization cleavage. In these sequences, the order of cell divisions is mixed up, leading to an inaccurate representation of the cleavage process. It is crucial to understand the logical progression of events in embryonic development to identify the correct sequence of post-fertilization cleavage.
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Which hormone stimulates the secondary female sex organs?
- A. FSH
- B. LH
- C. GnRH
- D. estrogen
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: estrogen. Estrogen is the hormone that stimulates the growth and development of secondary female sex organs like the breasts, uterus, and fallopian tubes. It plays a crucial role in regulating the menstrual cycle and preparing the body for pregnancy. FSH and LH are hormones released by the pituitary gland that primarily regulate the ovarian cycle, while GnRH is a hormone released by the hypothalamus to stimulate the pituitary gland to release FSH and LH. Estrogen, being a primary female sex hormone, directly influences the development and function of secondary sex organs in females.
Which of the following is not a bacterial infection?
- A. Chlamydial
- B. Gonorrhea
- C. Herpes
- D. Syphilis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Herpes. Herpes is a viral infection caused by the herpes simplex virus, not a bacterial infection. Chlamydial (A), Gonorrhea (B), and Syphilis (D) are all bacterial infections caused by specific bacteria. Therefore, Herpes does not fit the category of bacterial infections, making it the correct choice.
Examples of a ball and socket joint is
- A. Interphalangeal joint
- B. Knee joint
- C. Shoulder joint
- D. Elbow joint
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Shoulder joint. A ball and socket joint allows for multi-directional movement with a wide range of motion. The shoulder joint fits this description as it consists of the ball-shaped head of the humerus bone fitting into the socket of the scapula bone. This anatomical structure allows for movements like flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, and rotation. In contrast, the interphalangeal joint (A) is a hinge joint, the knee joint (B) is a hinge joint, and the elbow joint (D) is a pivot joint, none of which have the same range of motion as a ball and socket joint.
A nurse and unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are helping a client during a hysterosalpingogram. Which action by the nurse is best delegated to the UAP?
- A. Witnessing of the consent form
- B. Assisting the client into a lithotomy position
- C. Asking about allergies to iodine or shellfish
- D. Assessing for pelvic or shoulder pain after the study
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assisting the client into a lithotomy position. This task can be safely delegated to the UAP as it involves physically assisting the client into a specific position and does not require specialized nursing knowledge or assessment skills. The nurse should be available to provide guidance and supervision to ensure the safety and comfort of the client during the procedure.
Choices A, C, and D involve tasks that require nursing assessment and critical thinking skills, which should be performed by the nurse. Witnessing the consent form (choice A) ensures proper documentation and understanding of the procedure. Asking about allergies to iodine or shellfish (choice C) is crucial to prevent adverse reactions during the procedure. Assessing for pelvic or shoulder pain after the study (choice D) is important to monitor for any potential complications post-procedure. These tasks are within the scope of nursing practice and should not be delegated to a UAP.
The process in which sperm are hormone (FSH) have on males? streamlined into a head, midpiece,
- A. Male testes are not and tail is called ________.
- B. spermatogenesis
- C. FSH functions solely in
- D. acrosomal reaction
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: spermatogenesis. Spermatogenesis is the process by which sperm cells are produced in the male testes. FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) plays a crucial role in stimulating the production of sperm within the testes. During spermatogenesis, sperm cells go through various stages of development, including the formation of a head, midpiece, and tail. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: Male testes are not and tail is called ________. This statement is incomplete and does not make sense in the context of the question.
C: FSH functions solely in. This choice is incomplete and does not provide any relevant information about the process of sperm production.
D: Acrosomal reaction. This term refers to a specific event that occurs during fertilization and is not directly related to the overall process of sperm production in the testes.