Nokea
Collecting data and monitoring the health status of the population defines which of the core public health functions?
- A. Quality assurance
- B. Policy development
- C. Assessment
- D. Health promotion
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The core public health function of assessment involves systematic data collection on the population's health status, monitoring changes in health, and making information available to the public. In this context, collecting data and monitoring the health status of the population directly aligns with the assessment function of public health. Quality assurance focuses on ensuring that health services meet established standards, policy development involves creating policies to address public health issues, and health promotion involves empowering individuals to improve their health. While these functions are also essential in public health, the act of collecting data and monitoring health status specifically falls under the assessment core function.
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In order not to frighten small children, it is best to examine things that are uncomfortable or frightening to them last so as not to lose their cooperation. This means the LAST thing to do in a child is, which of the following, EXCEPT________.
- A. Inspection of the throat with a throat stick.
- B. Inspection of the ears with an otoscope
- C. Auscultation of the heart
- D. Undressing the child
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When examining a child, especially one who may already be feeling scared or uncomfortable, it is important to prioritize the order of procedures to help maintain their cooperation and reduce their anxiety. Undressing the child is typically done first to ensure a thorough examination can be performed, and it is a less invasive procedure compared to others. Inspection of the throat with a throat stick and inspection of the ears with an otoscope are common procedures that may cause mild discomfort but are often tolerated well by children. Auscultation of the heart is usually done after these initial steps and is not typically as uncomfortable or frightening for children compared to other procedures. Therefore, auscultation of the heart should not be the last thing to do when examining a child to avoid frightening them.
Which of the following is a common complication associated with long-term corticosteroid use in patients with rheumatoid arthritis?
- A. Osteoporotic fracture
- B. Osteonecrosis of the femoral head
- C. Avascular necrosis of the talus
- D. Septic arthritis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Long-term corticosteroid use in patients with rheumatoid arthritis can lead to osteoporosis, which is a common complication. Osteoporosis causes weakening of the bones, increasing the risk of fractures, particularly in weight-bearing bones such as the hip, spine, and wrist. Osteoporotic fractures are a significant concern in patients on long-term corticosteroid therapy, highlighting the importance of monitoring bone health and considering preventive measures such as calcium, Vitamin D supplementation, and regular bone density testing. While osteonecrosis of the femoral head and avascular necrosis of the talus can also occur as complications of corticosteroid use, osteoporotic fractures are more commonly associated with this type of therapy in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. Septic arthritis, on the other hand, is not directly related to corticosteroid use but can occur due to other factors such as joint infections.
Which of the following structures is responsible for producing hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor, essential for the digestion of proteins and absorption of vitamin B12, respectively?
- A. Liver
- B. Stomach
- C. Pancreas
- D. Small intestine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The stomach is responsible for producing hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor. Hydrochloric acid helps in the breakdown of proteins during digestion, while intrinsic factor aids in the absorption of vitamin B12 in the small intestine. These two components are crucial for the proper functioning of the digestive system, particularly in breaking down food and absorbing essential nutrients. The liver is involved in bile production, the pancreas in the production of digestive enzymes, and the small intestine in nutrient absorption, but the specific functions related to hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor are primarily attributed to the stomach.
A patient receiving palliative care for end-stage heart failure experiences paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. What intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to manage the patient's symptoms?
- A. Administer diuretic medications to reduce fluid overload.
- B. Elevate the head of the bed to improve respiratory mechanics.
- C. Encourage the patient to sleep in a reclined position to minimize dyspnea.
- D. Refer the patient to a sleep specialist for evaluation and treatment.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to improve respiratory mechanics is the most appropriate intervention for managing paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea in a patient with end-stage heart failure. By keeping the head of the bed elevated, gravity helps reduce the pooling of fluid in the lungs, making it easier for the patient to breathe and reducing dyspnea. This strategy can help improve oxygenation and decrease the sensation of breathlessness, providing relief for the patient. Administering diuretic medications (Option A) can also be beneficial to reduce fluid overload, although positioning remains a key intervention. Encouraging the patient to sleep in a reclined position (Option C) can help alleviate symptoms, but specifically elevating the head of the bed is a more targeted approach. Referring the patient to a sleep specialist (Option D) may not be necessary at this time, as the primary concern is managing the acute symptom of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
A patient presents with sudden-onset weakness and sensory loss on one side of the body along with difficulty speaking and understanding speech. Imaging reveals an acute infarction involving the right middle cerebral artery territory. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
- A. Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
- B. Intracerebral hemorrhage
- C. Ischemic stroke
- D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The patient is presenting with sudden-onset weakness and sensory loss on one side of the body along with difficulty speaking and understanding speech, which are classic symptoms of a stroke. The involvement of the right middle cerebral artery territory on imaging suggests an acute infarction, confirming an ischemic stroke. Ischemic stroke occurs due to a blockage or obstruction within a blood vessel supplying blood to the brain, leading to a lack of oxygen and nutrients reaching brain tissue. This results in neurological deficits corresponding to the affected area of the brain. In contrast, a transient ischemic attack (TIA) would present with similar symptoms but resolve within 24 hours without evidence of acute infarction on imaging. Intracerebral hemorrhage and subarachnoid hemorrhage involve bleeding into the brain tissue or the space surrounding the brain, respectively, resulting in different clinical presentations.