Community Health HESI Test Bank

Community Health HESI Test Bank Related

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Community organizing is an important part of the community nursing function. Given the following elements: choosing an organizational structure, identifying and recruiting members, defining mission, vision, and goals, clarifying roles and responsibilities; at which stage do these elements belong?

  • A. Program maintenance-consolidation
  • B. Dissemination-Reassessment
  • C. Community Analysis/diagnosis
  • D. Design and initiation
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Design and initiation. These elements such as choosing an organizational structure, identifying and recruiting members, defining mission, vision, and goals, and clarifying roles and responsibilities belong to the design and initiation stage of community organizing. This stage focuses on setting up the foundation and structure of the community organization. The other choices are incorrect because: A) Program maintenance-consolidation refers to maintaining and strengthening existing programs, not establishing new ones; B) Dissemination-Reassessment involves spreading information and evaluating programs already in place; C) Community Analysis/diagnosis is about assessing community needs and identifying issues, not about setting up the initial structure.

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With an alert of an internal disaster and the need for beds, the charge nurse is asked to list clients who are potential discharges within the next hour. Which client should the charge nurse select?

  • A. An elderly client who has had type 2 diabetes for over 20 years, admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis 24 hours ago
  • B. An adolescent admitted the prior night with Tylenol intoxication
  • C. A middle-aged client with an internal automatic defibrillator and complaints of 'passing out at unknown times' admitted yesterday
  • D. A school-age child diagnosed with suspected bacterial meningitis and was admitted at the change of shifts
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) that is being well-managed and has shown improvement within 24 hours is more stable and can be considered for discharge sooner than those with more acute or unstable conditions. Choice B is incorrect as Tylenol intoxication may require further monitoring and intervention. Choice C is incorrect as a client with an automatic defibrillator and episodes of passing out needs careful evaluation and monitoring. Choice D is incorrect as suspected bacterial meningitis is a serious condition that typically requires a longer hospital stay for treatment and observation.

What is the process of enabling people to increase control over and improve their health known as?

  • A. Health promotion
  • B. Disease prevention
  • C. Rehabilitation
  • D. Health education
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Health promotion. Health promotion focuses on empowering individuals to take control of their health by promoting healthy behaviors, lifestyles, and environments. It aims to prevent illnesses and enhance overall well-being. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not fully encompass the concept of empowering individuals to improve their health. Disease prevention specifically targets avoiding specific illnesses, rehabilitation focuses on restoring health after an illness or injury, and health education primarily involves imparting knowledge about health-related topics.

A client with peptic ulcer disease is receiving ranitidine (Zantac). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

  • A. Hypertension
  • B. Constipation
  • C. Diarrhea
  • D. Hypotension
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diarrhea. Ranitidine, which is used to treat peptic ulcer disease, can lead to gastrointestinal disturbances such as diarrhea. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypertension and hypotension are not common side effects of ranitidine. Constipation is also not a typical side effect associated with ranitidine use.

Which client has the highest risk for developing community-acquired pneumonia?

  • A. a 40-year-old first-grade teacher who works with underprivileged children
  • B. a 75-year-old retired secretary with exercise-induced wheezing
  • C. a 60-year-old homeless person who is an alcoholic and smokes
  • D. a 35-year-old aerobics instructor who skips meals and eats only vegetables
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because homeless individuals who are alcoholics and smoke have a higher risk of developing community-acquired pneumonia due to factors like poor living conditions, compromised immune systems, and increased exposure to infections. Choice A is less likely as the teacher's profession, while involving contact with children, may not pose as high a risk as the factors in choice C. Choice B may have respiratory issues but does not have the same risk factors as choice C. Choice D, the aerobics instructor, may have a healthy lifestyle but skipping meals and a restrictive diet do not directly correlate with a higher risk of pneumonia compared to the risk factors in choice C.

Which topic should be included in planning a secondary prevention project for the local retirement community?

  • A. Safety measures in the home.
  • B. Adult immunization program.
  • C. Rehabilitation after surgery.
  • D. Vision and hearing screening.
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In planning a secondary prevention project for the local retirement community, vision and hearing screening should be included. This is crucial as sensory impairments are common among older adults and early detection through screening can help in preventing further complications. Safety measures in the home, adult immunization programs, and rehabilitation after surgery are important but fall more under primary or tertiary prevention strategies rather than secondary prevention, which focuses on early detection and intervention to prevent the progression of health conditions.

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