The following scenario applies to the next 1 items
The nurse is caring for a client in the outpatient clinic
Item 1 of 1
Nurses’ Note
35-year-female arrives at the clinic for reported loss of appetite and nausea. The client reports that she is not eating as much because she experiences palpitations, sweating, and dizziness about thirty minutes after she eats. She reports that she has not been adherent to the prescribed diet and her symptoms worsen when she eats something sweet and drinks cola.
Medical History
• Morbid obesity (BMI 42)
• Roux-en-Y procedure eight weeks ago
Complete the following sentence by choosing from the list of options. To prevent.........., the nurse should instruct the client ............. and ...........
- A. Pernicious anemia
- B. Dumping syndrome
- C. Lie down after meals
- D. Exercise after meals
- E. Avoid drinking with meals
- F. Eat food high in carbohydrates
- G. Eat food high in vitamin B12
Correct Answer: B,E
Rationale: Dumping syndrome (B) occurs post-Roux-en-Y due to rapid gastric emptying. Avoiding drinking with meals (E) slows digestion, reducing symptoms. Lying down after meals (C) can worsen symptoms and is not advised.
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The emergency department (ED) nurse is caring for a 45-year-old male client.
Item 2 of 6
Nurses’ Notes
0600: The client reports sudden, severe epigastric pain. He has a history of chronic alcohol use disorder (30+ years), GERD, and hypertension. His home medications include pantoprazole and lisinopril. Upon assessment, the client is noted to be alert and oriented x4. He is mildly diaphoretic, with pulses 2+ and regular. Abdomen is distended, guarding on palpation, diminished bowel sounds, and no stool in the last 24 hours. He reports nausea and vomiting, and his pain is worse after eating fatty foods, rated 7/10 and radiating to his back. Breath sounds slightly diminished bilaterally, no adventitious sounds, denies cough or dyspnea. He reports heavy alcohol intake two days ago. Fingerstick glucose is 145 mg/dL (8.06 mmol/L) [70-110 mg/dL; 4-6 mmol/L]. Temperature is 101.3°F (38.5°C), heart rate of 112 bpm, respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min, blood pressure of 98/64 mmHg, and oxygen saturation of 95% on room air.
Orders
0600
• Cardiac monitoring
• NPO
• CBC
• CMP
• LFTs
• Amylase
• Lipase
• CT abdomen with contrast
The nurse is reviewing assessment findings to differentiate between acute pancreatitis and cholecystitis. For each assessment finding below, click to specify if the finding is consistent with the disease process of acute pancreatitis or cholecystitis. Each finding may support more than one (1) disease process. Each column must have at least one (1) response option selected.
- A. Severe epigastric pain
- B. Gray-blue discoloration of the flanks
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Leukocytosis
- E. Elevated lipase and amylase
- F. Hypocalcemia
Correct Answer: A,C,D,E,F;A,C,D
Rationale: Acute pancreatitis: A (Severe epigastric pain), C (Nausea and vomiting), D (Leukocytosis), E (Elevated lipase and amylase), F (Hypocalcemia). Cholecystitis: A, C, D. Elevated lipase/amylase and hypocalcemia are specific to pancreatitis.
The nurse has instructed self-management strategies for a client diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which statement by the client would indicate a correct understanding of the teaching?
- A. It's much better for me to wear loose-fitting clothes right now.
- B. I stopped eating grilled chicken and now eat more ground hamburger.
- C. If I wake up with GERD symptoms, I should lower the head of my bed while sleeping.
- D. I should take my prescribed omeprazole after meals.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Loose-fitting clothes (A) reduce abdominal pressure, helping manage GERD. Hamburger (B) is high-fat and worsens reflux, lowering the bed (C) increases symptoms, and omeprazole (D) is taken before meals.
The following scenario applies to the next 1 items
The nurse in the emergency department is caring for a 19-year-old male client.
Item 1 of 1
Nurses' Notes
0555: Client presents with abdominal pain, nausea, and some vomiting. The client's parents report that his symptoms started two nights ago and originated in the right lower quadrant. Overnight, his symptoms significantly intensified, and he developed a fever and chills. On assessment, the client's skin is hot and pale. Lung sounds are clear, and apical pulse is regular. Bowel sounds are absent in all quadrants. Abdomen is distended and rigid with guarding. Generalized abdominal pain was reported and rated 8/10 on the Numerical Rating Scale. He states that his abdominal pain increases with cough or movement and is relieved by bending the right hip. Vital signs: T 104°F (40°C), P 116, RR 21, BP 110/76, pulse oximetry reading 96% on room air. He has a medical history of iron deficiency anemia.
Laboratory Results
white blood cell (WBC) count: 21,000 mm3 [5,000–10,000/mm3]
hemoglobin: 13.9 g/dL [14–18 g/dL]
hematocrit: 41.7% [42%–52%]
Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify what condition the client is most likely experiencing, two (2) actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and two (2) parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client's progress.
- A. Insert a peripheral venous access device (VAD), obtain a stool specimen for culture and sensitivity (C & S), prepare the client for surgery, request an order for a clear liquid diet.
- B. Peritonitis, diverticulitis, appendicitis, gastroenteritis.
- C. Lung sounds, pulse, temperature, hemoglobin and hematocrit.
Correct Answer: B: Appendicitis; A: Insert a peripheral VAD, prepare the client for surgery; C: Temperature, pulse
Rationale: The clinical presentation (right lower quadrant pain, fever, leukocytosis, rigid abdomen) strongly suggests appendicitis (B). Inserting a VAD and preparing for surgery (A) are critical for anticipated appendectomy. Monitoring temperature and pulse (C) tracks infection and hemodynamic status.
The nurse is caring for a client who has ascites and hepatic encephalopathy. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the primary healthcare provider (PHCP)?
- A. Alprazolam
- B. Rifaximin
- C. Lactulose
- D. Spironolactone
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Alprazolam (A), a benzodiazepine, can worsen hepatic encephalopathy by increasing sedation and ammonia levels. Rifaximin (B), lactulose (C), and spironolactone (D) are appropriate for managing hepatic encephalopathy and ascites.
The nurse is caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) through a central line. The nurse plans on taking which appropriate action?
- A. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter.
- B. Weighing the client in the morning before the first void.
- C. Placing a mask on the client before changing the central line dressing.
- D. Establishing continuous cardiac monitoring.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Weighing the client daily (B) monitors fluid balance and nutritional status, critical for TPN management. Catheters (A), masks (C), and cardiac monitoring (D) are not routinely required unless indicated.
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