Nokea
The nurse is caring for a 64-year-old client.
History and Physical
Body System, Findings
General ,
The client reports a 24-hour history of blurred vision and redness in the left eye with a left-sided headache.
This evening, the client developed acute, severe pain in the left eye accompanied by occasional nausea and
vomiting. The client reports no use of systemic or topical eye medications. Medical history includes
osteoarthritis and hypercholesterolemia.
Eye, Ear, Nose, and Throat (EENT),
The client wears eyeglasses to correct farsighted vision. Right eye: pupil 2 mm and reactive to light,
conjunctiva clear. Left eye: pupil 4 mm and nonreactive to light with red conjunctiva. Bilateral lens opacity is noted.
Pulmonary,
Vital signs are RR 20 and SpO, 96% on room air. The lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally.
Cardiovascular,
Vital signs are T 99 F (37.2 C), P 88, and BP 140/82.
Psychosocial,
The client reports a great deal of emotional stress following the recent death of the client's spouse that is accompanied by lack of sleep, poor appetite, and a 7.9-lb (3.6-kg) weight loss within the past month. The client takes diphenhydramine for sleep.
Complete the following sentence by choosing from the lists of options. The nurse suspects that the client's current symptoms are due to -------------------------
and that the client is at increased risk for permanent vision loss due to--------------------------
- A. Cataracts
- B. Infection
- C. Retinal detachment
- D. Corneal ulcer
- E. Angle-closure glaucoma
- F. Optic nerve ischemia
Correct Answer: E,F
Rationale: Acute angle-closure glaucoma results from a significant increase in intraocular pressure (IOP) (>50 mm Hg) due to impaired aqueous
humor drainage. In susceptible individuals (eg, those with a narrow anterior chamber angle), dilation of the pupil causes the iris to press
against the lens, preventing flow of aqueous humor through the pupil. This causes the iris to bulge forward, closing the anterior chamber
angle and blocking drainage of aqueous humor through the trabecular meshwork. The rise in IOP leads to immediate optic nerve ischem
potentially resulting in permanent vision loss.
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Nurses' Notes
Outpatient Clinic
Initial
visit
The child recently started attending a new preschool and hit a teacher during lunch. The parent says,
"My
child has never been aggressive before but has always been particular about food."
The client was born at full term without complications and has no significant medical history. The child
started babbling at age 6 months, and the parent reports that the first words were spoken around age 12
months. The client then became quiet and "obsessed" with stacking blocks and organizing toys by color.
The child can kick a ball, draw a circle, pedal a tricycle, and now says two-word phrases. Vitals signs are
normal, and the client is tracking adequately on growth curves.
During the evaluation, the child sits in the corner of the room playing with blocks. The client does not follow
the parents gaze when the parent points to toys in the office. The child begins screaming and rocking back
and forth when the health care provider comes near.
Laboratory Results
Laboratory Test and
Reference Range
1030
Glucose (random)
71-200 mg/dL
(3.9-11.1 mmol/L)
110 mg/dL (6.1 mmol/L)
Sodium
136-145 mEq/L
(136-145 mmol/L)|
133 mEq/L (133 mmol/L)|
Potassium
3.5-5.0 mEq/L
(3.5-5.0 mmol/L)
4.5 mEq/L (4.5 mmol/L)
B-type natriuretic peptide
<100 pg/mL
(<100 ng/L)
640 pg/mL (640 ng/L)
Diagnostic Results
Chest X-ray
1030:Mild cardiomegaly
Echocardiogram
1100:Mild left ventricular hypertrophy with left ventricular ejection fraction of 30%
For each finding below, click to specify if the finding is consistent with the expected action of the medication carvedilol, enalapril, or furosemide. Each finding may support more than one medication.
- A. Decreases heart rate
- B. Increases urinary output
- C. Decreases blood pressure
- D. Increases oxygen saturation
Correct Answer:
Rationale: Pharmacologic management of heart failure (HF) focuses on reducing cardiac workload and improving cardiac output.
• Beta-adrenergic antagonists ("beta blockers") (eg, carvedilol) reduce cardiac workload by inhibiting the action of
catecholamines (eg, epinephrine, norepinephrine) on beta-adrenergic receptors in the heart. Beta blockers decrease
myocardial oxygen demand by decreasing blood pressure and decreasing heart rate.
• Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors (eg, enalapril) alter the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system by
inhibiting conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, thereby preventing the release of aldosterone. Aldosterone, an
adrenal steroid hormone, retains sodium and water in addition to promoting vasoconstriction. By reducing circulating
aldosterone, ACE inhibitors promote vasodilation and as a result decrease blood pressure. ACE inhibitors also
decrease ventricular remodeling, an added benefit for clients with HF.
• Loop diuretics (eg, furosemide) prevent reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the kidneys, which increases urine
output and fluid excretion. Decreases in circulating fluid volume will decrease blood pressure and reduce pulmonary
edema (ie, increase oxygen saturation), as well as decrease cardiac preload.
The nurse is performing a home health visit for an 84-year-old male.
History and Physical
Body System, Findings
General,
Client reports a 1-month-long history of fatigue and dyspnea that has worsened; he is unable to lie
flat and sleeps in a chair at night, medical history includes myocardial infarction, chronic heart
failure, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes mellitus; client
was diagnosed with benign prostatic hyperplasia 8 months ago; client is adherent with prescribed
medications; client reports frequent consumption of donuts, hamburgers, steak, and fried chicken;
BMI is 34 kg/m?; client reports 6-Ib (2.7-kg) weight gain in 1 week
Neurological,
Alert and oriented to person, place, time, and situation
Pulmonary,
Vital signs: RR 24, SpOz 88% on room air; labored breathing, crackles in bilateral lung bases; client
expectorates frothy, pink-tinged sputum; client has a 40-year history of smoking 1 pack of cigarettes
per day
Cardiovascular,
Vital signs: T 98.8 F (37.1 C), P 98, BP 113/92; S1, S2, and S3 present; 3+ bilateral lower extremity
edema
Genitourinary, Concentrated yellow urine; client reports increased urinary hesitancy and urgency
Psychosocial,
Client reports being lonely and has depressed mental status
Select 5 findings that require further investigation.
- A. unable to lie flat and sleeps in a chair at night
- B. 6-1b (2.7-kg) weight
gain in 1 week - C. increased urinary hesitancy and urgency
- D. SpO2 88% on room air
- E. crackles in bilateral lung
bases;
Correct Answer: A,B,D,E
Rationale: A client with chronic heart failure (HF) who reports worsening fatigue, dyspnea, orthopnea, and peripheral edema is likely
experiencing declining oxygenation due to fluid volume overload. Assessment findings that require further investigation
include:
• Orthopnea: Labored breathing in the supine position is a common manifestation in clients with HF due to pulmonary
edema. Clients with orthopnea often sleep on a chair or on propped-up pillows to decrease work of breathing.
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, which is waking up in the middle of the night with suffocation due to dyspnea, is another
characteristic finding in HF.
• Crackles on auscultation: Crackles are a manifestation of pulmonary edema caused by fluid in the alveoli. Pulmonary
edema is concerning for worsening HF and impaired gas exchange.
• Peripheral edema and rapid weight gain (ie, >5 Ib/week [2.3 kg/week]): These symptoms are concerning for fluid
volume overload
• Hypoxemia: Decreased capillary oxygen saturation (SpO, <95%) is a sign of inadequate gas exchange. This is most
likely related to pulmonary edema from HF exacerbation.
The nurse is caring for a 20-year-old female client.
Nurses' Notes
Urgent Care Clinic
0845: The parent brought the client to the clinic due to vomiting and weakness. The parent states that the client has experienced
sore throat and nasal congestion for the past week. The client has had 4 episodes of emesis during the past 24 hours and
diffuse, constant abdominal pain. The parent also reports that the client has had increased thirst and urine output over the
past 2 months.
The client's last menstrual period ended approximately 6 weeks ago with no abnormalities. Pregnancy status is unknown. The
client does not take any medications and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or recreational substances. Family history includes
hypertension and diabetes mellitus.
The client appears drowsy and is oriented to person and time only. The abdomen is soft without rigidity or rebound
tenderness, and bowel sounds are normal. No blood is present in emesis. Respirations are rapid and deep. Breath sounds
are clear.
Vital signs are T 98.8 F (37.1 C), P 128, RR 30, and BP 88/60 mm Hg.
Finger-stick blood glucose level is 600 mg/dL (33.3 mmol/L).
For each potential finding below, click to specify if the finding is consistent with the disease process of diabetic ketoacidosis, ruptured appendix, or ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Each finding may support more than one disease process.
- A. Polyuria
- B. Vomiting
- C. Tachypnea
- D. Tachycardia
- E. Hyperglycemia
- F. Abdominal pain
Correct Answer:
Rationale: Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a complication of diabetes mellitus that results from lack of insulin. Insulin is required to transport glucose
into cells for energy, which means that lack of insulin leads to intracellular starvation despite the high level of glucose circulating in the blood
(hyperglycemia). Physiologic responses to hyperglycemia include osmotic diuresis (polyuria) for reduction of blood glucose levels and
breakdown of fat into acidic ketone bodies for energy. This leads to states of dehydration (as evidenced by tachycardia), electrolyte
imbalance, and metabolic acidosis. Ketoacidosis leads to tachypnea and deep respirations (Kussmaul respirations), as well as abdominal
pain and vomiting.
Appendicitis is an inflammation of the appendix often resulting from obstruction by fecal matter. Appendiceal obstruction traps colonic fluid
and mucus, causing increased intraluminal pressure and inflammation. This impairs perfusion of the appendix, resulting in swelling and
ischemia. Clinical manifestations include fever, abdominal pain, rebound abdominal tenderness, tachycardia, nausea, and vomiting.
Abdominal pain usually begins near the umbilicus and migrates to the right lower quadrant (eg, McBurney point). Tachypnea, as well as a
compensatory response, can be present, especially if there is a ruptured appendix or evidence of sepsis causing lactic acidosis (metabolic
acidosis).
History and Physical
Body System
Findings
General
Client reports a 1-week history of general malaise, fever and chills, night sweats, fatigue, and
poor appetite. Client has poorly controlled hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and mitral
valve prolapse and regurgitation.
Eye, Ear, Nose, and
Throat (EENT)
Poor dental hygiene. Client reports having 2 teeth extracted 3 weeks ago.
Pulmonary
Vital signs are RR 18 and SpO, 96% on room air. Lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally.
Cardiovascular
Vital signs are T 100.4 F (38 C), P 105, and BP 140/82. Sinus tachycardia with occasional
premature ventricular contractions on cardiac monitor. S1 and S2 heard on auscultation with
loud systolic murmur at the apex. Peripheral pulses 2+; no edema noted.
Integumentary
Small, erythematous macular lesions on both palms. Thin, brown longitudinal lines on several
nail beds.
The nurse is preparing to administer the first dose of the prescribed IVPB antibiotic. Which 2 actions are most appropriate for the nurse to perform prior to initiating the infusion?
- A. Administer a dose of PRN acetaminophen
- B. Ask about the client's medication allergies
- C. Ensure that prescribed blood cultures have been obtained
- D. Ensure that the prescribed echocardiography has been obtained
- E. Reschedule the antibiotic dose until the central venous catheter is in place
Correct Answer: B,C
Rationale: Antibiotic therapy is a critical component of treatment for clients with infective endocarditis (E). Before administering IV
antibiotics, the nurse should first obtain blood cultures to identify the infectious organism. Broad-spectrum antibiotics are
started initially. Targeted antibiotic therapy can be administered once the blood cultures identify the culprit organisms and their
antimicrobial susceptibilities. Before starting any medication, the nurse should ask about the client's medication allergies to
identify contraindications to therapy
The nurse is caring for a 24-year-old client.
Nurses' Notes
Emergency Department
1300:
The client is brought to the emergency department after a motor vehicle collision in which the driver's side airbag deployed.
The client was driving the vehicle and was not restrained by a seat belt. The client reports shortness of breath and chest
pain on inspiration and expiration.
History and Physical
Body System ,Findings
Neurological,
Awake, alert, and oriented to person; pupils equal, round, and reactive to light and accommodation; client is
agitated and moves all extremities spontaneously but does not follow commands
Integumentary, Superficial lacerations to the face; diffuse bruising noted on upper extremities and chest wall
Pulmonary,
Vital signs: RR 30, SpOz 92% via nonrebreather mask; unilateral chest wall expansion observed on inspiration;
left-sided tracheal deviation noted; breath sounds diminished throughout the right lung field
Cardiovascular,
Vital signs: P 104, BP 90/58; S1 and S2 heard on auscultation; all pulses palpable; no extremity peripheral edema
noted
Psychosocial ,Alcohol odor noted on the client's breath
Diagnostic Results
Chest X-ray
Accumulation of air in the pleural cavity, tracheal deviation to the left. Findings consistent with a tension pneumothorax.
A new chest tube collection device is attached and set to water seal suction. Which of the following observations are expected? Select all
that apply.
- A. A drainage tube coiled on the floor next to the chest tube collection device
- B. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
- C. Occlusive sterile gauze dressing present over the tubing insertion site
- D. The chest tube collection device positioned below the chest tube insertion site
- E. Tidaling in the water seal chamber with inspiration and expiration
Correct Answer: C,D,E
Rationale: Chest tube drainage collection containers must always remain upright and be dependent to (lower than) the client's chest to prevent
gravitational reflux of any secretions back into the pleural cavity (Option 4).
An occlusive sterile gauze dressing should cover the chest tube insertion site. An occlusive dressing (eg, petroleum gauze) protects
against infection and prevents atmospheric air from entering the pleural space if a leak is present (Option 3).
The water level in the water seal chamber rises with inspiration and falls with expiration due to changes in intrapleural pressure, a
process known as tidaling. This movement indicates negative pressure is being maintained. Tidaling is not expected when the device is
connected to suction; therefore, the nurse should disconnect suction to assess tidaling (Option 5).