Nokea
Complications of uterine rupture:
- A. Hemorrhage, uterine atony, infection, peritonitis
- B. Preterm labor, cord prolapse, uterine prolapse
- C. Fetal distress, placental abruption, uterine rupture
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because uterine rupture can lead to severe complications such as hemorrhage from blood vessels tearing, uterine atony causing failure of the uterus to contract, infection due to exposure of internal tissues, and peritonitis from inflammation of the abdominal lining. Choices B and C are incorrect as they list complications that are not directly associated with uterine rupture. Preterm labor, cord prolapse, uterine prolapse, fetal distress, placental abruption are potential consequences of other obstetric complications but not specifically uterine rupture. Therefore, choice A is the most appropriate answer given the context of uterine rupture.
You may also like to solve these questions
Ms. OReilly is a 69-year-old patient who is having a bowel resection for a malignant tumor of the right colon. She has several chronic medical conditions and takes numerous daily medications, including metoprolol 100 mg daily, warfarin 5 mg daily, vitamin E 200 units daily, and metformin 1000 mg bid. Which of the following regimens is the most appropriate approach to managing her medications preoperatively?
- A. All medications should be taken up to and including the morning of surgery
- B. The beta blocker may be taken up until the day of surgery, metformin should be held the day of surgery, and the remaining medications should be d/c’d 5–7 days before surgery
- C. Warfarin should be held 5 days before surgery; all other medications may be taken through the morning of surgery
- D. Metformin should be held if the morning blood sugar is < 200 mg/dL; all other medications except warfarin may be given the day of surgery
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. It is important to manage medications appropriately preoperatively to minimize complications. Metoprolol, a beta blocker, should be continued up until the day of surgery to prevent rebound hypertension or tachycardia. Metformin should be held on the day of surgery to avoid potential lactic acidosis due to its effects on kidney function. Warfarin should be discontinued 5-7 days before surgery to reduce the risk of bleeding. Vitamin E can increase bleeding risk and should be discontinued. Choice A is incorrect as not all medications should be taken until the morning of surgery. Choice C is incorrect as warfarin should be held earlier than 5 days before surgery. Choice D is incorrect as metformin should be held on the day of surgery, regardless of blood sugar levels, to prevent lactic acidosis.
Diabetes in pregnancy predisposes a mother to developing vulvovaginitis due to
- A. High acidity levels which favor growth of E. coli
- B. Low acidity levels which favor growth of candida albicans
- C. Existing chronic hypertension
- D. Lowered osmotic pressure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Low acidity levels which favor growth of candida albicans. During pregnancy, hormonal changes can lead to increased vaginal pH, creating a more alkaline environment that promotes the growth of candida albicans, causing vulvovaginitis. Choice A is incorrect as E. coli thrives in alkaline environments. Choice C, existing chronic hypertension, is unrelated to the development of vulvovaginitis. Choice D, lowered osmotic pressure, does not directly influence the growth of candida albicans.
Vaginal delivery is possible in
- A. Brow presentation
- B. Face presentation
- C. Shoulder presentation
- D. Unstable lie
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Face presentation. Vaginal delivery is possible in face presentation as the fetus is in a position where the face is presenting first, allowing for delivery. In this presentation, the chin is usually tucked onto the chest, making it easier for the baby's head to pass through the birth canal.
A: Brow presentation is incorrect because it indicates the baby's head is extended slightly, making it more difficult for vaginal delivery.
C: Shoulder presentation is incorrect as it can lead to a shoulder dystocia, making vaginal delivery dangerous and difficult.
D: Unstable lie is incorrect because it refers to the baby being in a transverse position, making vaginal delivery impossible without intervention.
A non-pharmacological measure of pain relief in labour includes
- A. Entonox
- B. Cyclothane
- C. Diamorphine
- D. Homeopathy
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diamorphine. Diamorphine is a non-pharmacological measure of pain relief in labor. It is a type of opioid analgesic that helps to reduce pain during labor. It works by binding to opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord, altering the perception of pain.
Rationale:
1. Diamorphine is a medication that directly targets pain relief.
2. It is a commonly used non-pharmacological measure in labor settings.
3. Diamorphine does not involve the use of any gases or inhalants like Entonox (A) or Cyclothane (B).
4. Homeopathy (D) is based on the principle of treating "like with like" using highly diluted substances and is not typically used for pain relief in labor.
Summary:
A: Entonox and B: Cyclothane are incorrect because they are pharmacological measures involving the use of gases or inhalants. D: Homeopathy is
Jennifer is an RN applicant for a staff nurse position in the surgical ICU. She has had a screening PPD and comes back in 48 hours to have it read. There is a 12-mm induration at the site of injection. A chest radiograph is negative. The AGACNP knows that the next step in Jennifers evaluation and management should include
- A. No further care, because the chest radiograph is negative
- B. Quantiferon serum assay for exposure
- C. Consideration of prophylactic therapy
- D. Beginning therapy for pulmonary TB pending sputum cultures
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: No further care, because the chest radiograph is negative. In this scenario, Jennifer has a positive PPD test with a 12-mm induration but a negative chest radiograph, indicating latent TB infection. The negative chest radiograph rules out active TB disease. As a result, Jennifer does not require further evaluation or treatment for active TB. The positive PPD alone does not warrant further investigations such as Quantiferon assay (B) or prophylactic therapy (C) as these are not indicated for latent TB infection without active disease. Beginning therapy for pulmonary TB (D) is unnecessary and potentially harmful as Jennifer does not have active TB. Thus, the correct course of action is to provide no further care based on the negative chest radiograph.