Nokea
Conditions that produce acute kidney injury by directly acting on functioning kidney tissue are classified as intrarenal. The most common intrarenal condition is
- A. prolonged ischemia.
- B. exposure to nephrotoxic substances.
- C. acute tubular necrosis (ATN).
- D. hypotension for several hours.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is the most common intrarenal condition causing acute kidney injury. ATN is characterized by damage to the renal tubules due to ischemia or nephrotoxic substances. Prolonged ischemia (choice A) and exposure to nephrotoxic substances (choice B) can lead to ATN. Hypotension for several hours (choice D) can result in ischemic injury, which may lead to ATN but is not the direct cause. Therefore, choice C is correct as it directly relates to the primary intrarenal condition of ATN.
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The nurse is caring for a patient who has sustained blunt trauma to the left flank area, and is evaluating the patient’s urinalysis results. The nurse should become concerned when
- A. creatinine levels in the urine are similar to blood levels of creatinine.
- B. sodium and chloride are found in the urine.
- C. urine uric acid levels have the same values as serum levels.
- D. red blood cells and albumin are found in the urine.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the presence of red blood cells and albumin in the urine indicates kidney damage, as these are not normally found in urine. A: Creatinine levels should be similar in blood and urine for proper kidney function. B: Sodium and chloride are normal components of urine. C: Uric acid levels can vary in urine and serum. Therefore, D is the correct answer as it signals potential kidney injury.
Which of the following patients is at the greatest risk of developing acute kidney injury? A patient who
- A. has been on aminoglycosides for the past 6 days
- B. has a history of controlled hypertension with a blood pressure of 138/88 mm Hg
- C. was discharged 2 weeks earlier after aminoglycoside therapy of 2 weeks
- D. has a history of fluid overload as a result of heart failure
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the patient was recently discharged after a prolonged course of aminoglycoside therapy, which is a known risk factor for acute kidney injury due to its nephrotoxic effects. Choice A is incorrect because although aminoglycosides can cause kidney injury, the duration of therapy is shorter in this case. Choice B is incorrect because controlled hypertension is not a significant risk factor for acute kidney injury. Choice D is incorrect because fluid overload from heart failure may lead to other complications but is not directly associated with acute kidney injury.
The patient is admitted to the unit with the diagnosis of rhabdomyolysis. The patient is started on intravenous (IV) fluids and IV mannitol. What action by the nurse is best?
- A. Assess the patient’s hearing.
- B. Assess the patient’s lungs.
- C. Decrease IV fluids once the diuretic has been administered.
- D. Give extra doses before giving radiological contrast agents.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess the patient's lungs. In rhabdomyolysis, muscle breakdown releases myoglobin which can cause kidney damage. Mannitol is given to prevent kidney damage by promoting diuresis. However, mannitol can also cause fluid overload and pulmonary edema. Therefore, assessing the patient's lungs is crucial to monitor for signs of fluid overload and prevent complications.
A: Assessing the patient's hearing is not directly related to the management of rhabdomyolysis and mannitol administration.
C: Decreasing IV fluids after administering a diuretic like mannitol can lead to inadequate fluid resuscitation and worsening kidney injury.
D: Giving extra doses before radiological contrast agents is not necessary in the context of rhabdomyolysis and mannitol administration.
The nurse is caring for a patient who underwent pituitary surgery 12 hours ago. The nurse will give priority to monitoring the patient carefully for which of the following?
- A. Congestive heart failure
- B. Hypovolemic shock
- C. Infection
- D. Volume overload
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypovolemic shock. After pituitary surgery, patients are at risk for hypovolemic shock due to potential intraoperative blood loss and fluid shifts. Monitoring for signs of shock, such as hypotension and tachycardia, is crucial for early intervention. A: Congestive heart failure is less likely immediately post-surgery. C: Infection is a concern but not the highest priority in the immediate postoperative period. D: Volume overload is not a common immediate complication of pituitary surgery.
A patient with pancreatic cancer has been admitted to the critical care unit with clinical signs consistent with syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone. The nurse anticipates that clinical management of this condition will include
- A. administration of 3% normal saline.
- B. administration of exogenous vasopressin.
- C. fluid restriction.
- D. low sodium diet.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) leads to excess water retention, diluting sodium levels in the blood.
Step 2: Fluid restriction is the mainstay of treatment to prevent further dilution of sodium.
Step 3: Administering 3% normal saline (choice A) can worsen the condition by further increasing sodium levels.
Step 4: Exogenous vasopressin (choice B) would exacerbate the problem by increasing water retention.
Step 5: Low sodium diet (choice D) may be beneficial in the long term but is not the immediate priority.