Diamorphic anaemia results due to deficiency of
- A. Iron and thiamine
- B. Iron and folic acid
- C. Folic acid and thiamine
- D. Liver enzymes and iron
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Iron and folic acid. Diamorphic anemia is characterized by the presence of both microcytic and macrocytic red blood cells, which can be caused by a deficiency in both iron and folic acid. Iron deficiency leads to microcytic anemia, while folic acid deficiency results in macrocytic anemia. Thiamine deficiency (Choice A) primarily affects the nervous system and does not directly cause diamorphic anemia. Liver enzymes deficiency (Choice D) does not directly lead to diamorphic anemia. Folic acid and thiamine deficiency (Choice C) can cause individual types of anemia but not diamorphic anemia.
You may also like to solve these questions
The term used to describe the situation whereby there is the presence of more than one part of the fetus on the pelvic brim at the onset of labor is
- A. Unstable lie
- B. Fetal malpresentation
- C. Fetal malposition
- D. Compound presentation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Compound presentation. This term refers to the situation where there is more than one part of the fetus on the pelvic brim at the onset of labor. This can include a hand or arm alongside the head or another body part. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Unstable lie refers to the fetus being in a transverse position. B: Fetal malpresentation indicates an abnormal presentation of the fetus, such as breech or transverse. C: Fetal malposition refers to the fetus being in a suboptimal position, like occiput posterior. Thus, the best choice is D as it specifically describes the scenario of multiple fetal parts on the pelvic brim.
Classical caesarean section is indicated for
- A. An anteriorly situated placenta praevia
- B. A posteriorly situated placenta praevia
- C. A gestation of more than 32 weeks
- D. Aesthetic purpose on maternal request
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because in cases of anteriorly situated placenta praevia, where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, a classical caesarean section is indicated to prevent severe bleeding during delivery. For choice B, a posteriorly situated placenta praevia does not necessitate a classical caesarean section. Choice C, gestation of more than 32 weeks, does not specifically indicate the need for a classical caesarean section. Choice D, aesthetic purpose on maternal request, is not a valid medical indication for a classical caesarean section.
Ms. Carpenter is a 28-year-old female who presents in significant pain she indicates that the discomfort is in the right lower quadrant. The discomfort is colicky in nature and has the patient in tears. Which of the following associated findings increases the index of suspicion for ureteral colic?
- A. Temperature > 102°F
- B. White blood cell count > 14,000 cells/µL
- C. Vomiting
- D. Hematuria
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Temperature > 102°F. A high fever in the context of right lower quadrant colicky pain raises concern for ureteral colic, which is often caused by kidney stones. Fever may indicate infection or obstruction, requiring urgent medical attention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are common findings in cases of ureteral colic but are not as specific to raise the index of suspicion. White blood cell count elevation and hematuria are common with kidney stones, while vomiting is a common symptom due to severe pain. However, fever is a more concerning sign that necessitates prompt evaluation.
Five (5) major factors predisposed to uterine rupture:
- A. Previous C-section, uterine scars, fetal macrosomia, trauma, prolonged labor
- B. Malpresentation, premature rupture of membranes, obesity, malnutrition, anemia
- C. Uterine fibroids, excessive weight gain, smoking, poor prenatal care
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A):
1. Previous C-section and uterine scars weaken the uterine wall.
2. Fetal macrosomia (large baby) increases pressure on the uterus.
3. Trauma can cause direct injury to the uterus.
4. Prolonged labor can lead to uterine overdistension and fatigue, increasing rupture risk.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B: Malpresentation, premature rupture of membranes, obesity, malnutrition, anemia are not direct factors for uterine rupture.
C: Uterine fibroids, excessive weight gain, smoking, poor prenatal care can contribute to complications but not primary causes of uterine rupture.
D: Not all factors in choices B and C are predisposing factors for uterine rupture, making this choice incorrect.
The most common cause of immediate postpartum haemorrhage is uterine atony, not trauma to the genital tract.
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
- C. Sometimes True
- D. Unclear
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. Uterine atony is the most common cause of immediate postpartum hemorrhage due to inadequate uterine contraction to control bleeding. This is supported by research and clinical evidence. Trauma to the genital tract is a less common cause and usually leads to delayed hemorrhage. Choice B is incorrect as uterine atony is a well-documented primary cause. Choice C is incorrect as uterine atony is consistently the leading cause. Choice D is incorrect as the cause of immediate postpartum hemorrhage is clear, with uterine atony being the most common culprit.