Diet, exercise and establishing a regular sleep cycle are all effective treatments for many mental disorders in teenagers
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Lifestyle interventions like diet, exercise, and sleep hygiene are evidence-based adjuncts for managing many mental disorders.
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During a treatment team meeting, the point is made that a client with schizophrenia has recovered from the acute psychosis but continues to demonstrate apathy, avolition, and blunted affect. The nurse who relates these symptoms to serotonin (SHT2) excess will suggest that the client receive:
- A. Haloperidol (Haldol)
- B. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
- C. Olanzapine (Zyprexa)
- D. Phenelzine (NardiI)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Olanzapine (Zyprexa) is an atypical antipsychotic that targets multiple neurotransmitter systems, including serotonin. Serotonin excess is associated with symptoms like apathy, avolition, and blunted affect. Olanzapine, by blocking serotonin receptors, can help alleviate these symptoms in schizophrenia.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Haloperidol and B: Chlorpromazine are typical antipsychotics that primarily target dopamine receptors, not serotonin. They are more effective for positive symptoms of schizophrenia, not apathy and avolition.
D: Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) used for depression and anxiety disorders, not for schizophrenia symptoms related to serotonin excess.
The physician and advanced practice nurse are considering which antipsychotic medication to prescribe for a patient with schizophrenia who demonstrates auditory hallucinations, apathy, anhedonia, and poor social functioning. The patient is overweight and has hypertension. Bearing these facts in mind, the drug the nurse should advocate would be:
- A. clozapine (Clozaril).
- B. haloperidol (Haldol).
- C. olanzapine (Zyprexa).
- D. aripiprazole (Ability).
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: aripiprazole (Ability). Aripiprazole is a second-generation antipsychotic that is less likely to cause weight gain and metabolic side effects compared to other antipsychotics like clozapine (A), olanzapine (C), and haloperidol (B). Given that the patient is overweight and has hypertension, aripiprazole would be a better choice to minimize the risk of exacerbating these conditions. Additionally, aripiprazole has a lower risk of sedation, which can be beneficial for a patient with apathy and anhedonia, allowing for improved social functioning. Aripiprazole's unique mechanism of action as a partial dopamine agonist can also be advantageous for managing auditory hallucinations in schizophrenia. Therefore, aripiprazole is the most suitable choice for this patient based on their clinical presentation and comorbidities.
A patient admitted to the eating disorders unit has yellow skin, the extremities are cold, and the heart rate is 42 bpm. The patient weighs 70 pounds; height is 5 feet 4 inches. The patient is quiet during the assessment, saying only, 'I will not eat until I lose enough weight to look thin.' Select the best initial nursing diagnosis.
- A. Anxiety related to fear of weight gain.
- B. Disturbed body image related to weight loss.
- C. Ineffective coping related to lack of conflict resolution skills.
- D. None of the above.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (D): None of the above is the best initial nursing diagnosis because the patient's symptoms suggest a severe medical condition rather than psychological issues. The yellow skin, cold extremities, low heart rate, extreme low weight, and refusal to eat indicate severe malnutrition and possible organ failure. Therefore, the priority is to address the patient's immediate medical needs, such as restoring electrolyte balance and preventing further complications. Psychological assessments and diagnoses can follow once the patient's physical health is stabilized.
Summary of Other Choices:
A: Anxiety related to fear of weight gain - This choice focuses on psychological factors, but the patient's symptoms indicate severe physical malnutrition rather than anxiety.
B: Disturbed body image related to weight loss - While body image issues may be present, the patient's critical medical condition takes precedence over psychological concerns.
C: Ineffective coping related to lack of conflict resolution skills - This choice does not address the urgency of the patient's physical symptoms and is not the most
A psychiatric technician remarks to the nurse, 'That client with dependent personality disorder is so clingy! I almost hate to see her coming my way.' The response by the nurse that will be helpful to the technician is:
- A. I think everyone feels that way. It's difficult to have someone clinging.'
- B. Clients with personality disorders have little regard for the rights of others.'
- C. The client fears having to function independently without direction from someone else.'
- D. The client is so preoccupied with perfection and structure that she's afraid to do anything at all.'
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The client fears having to function independently without direction from someone else. This response is helpful because it provides insight into the underlying fear and motivation of the client's behavior. Clients with dependent personality disorder often have an excessive need to be taken care of and fear being alone or making decisions independently. This response acknowledges the client's struggle with autonomy and offers understanding without judgment.
Choice A is incorrect because it normalizes the technician's negative feelings, which does not address the client's needs. Choice B is incorrect because it makes a generalizing and negative statement about clients with personality disorders, which is stigmatizing and unhelpful. Choice D is incorrect because it describes features more commonly associated with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder, not dependent personality disorder.
A nurse is caring for a patient with bulimia nervosa who is experiencing frequent purging. What is a priority assessment?
- A. Monitor electrolyte levels and cardiac function.
- B. Observe for signs of dehydration and low blood pressure.
- C. Assess for any compulsive exercise behaviors.
- D. Monitor for changes in eating patterns and food preferences.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, to monitor electrolyte levels and cardiac function. This is a priority assessment because frequent purging in bulimia nervosa can lead to electrolyte imbalances and cardiac complications, such as arrhythmias and heart failure. Monitoring these parameters is crucial for early detection and intervention to prevent serious health consequences. Observing for signs of dehydration and low blood pressure (Choice B) is important but not as critical as monitoring electrolyte levels and cardiac function. Assessing for compulsive exercise behaviors (Choice C) and monitoring changes in eating patterns and food preferences (Choice D) are also relevant but secondary to the immediate risk of electrolyte imbalances and cardiac issues.
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