Nokea
Drugs that may cause sedation in the elderly include:
- A. Benzodiazepines
- B. Antihistamines
- C. Opioids
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Choice D is correct because benzodiazepines (e.g., lorazepam), antihistamines (e.g., diphenhydramine), and opioids (e.g., oxycodone) all cause sedation, increasing fall risk in the elderly, per Beers Criteria. Choice A is incorrect alone as it's one class. Choice B is wrong by itself because antihistamines are just part. Choice C is incorrect solo since opioids are only one group.
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A woman who is pregnant tells an NP that she has been taking sertraline for depression for several years but is worried about the effects of this drug on her fetus. The NP will consult with this patient's psychiatrist and will recommend that she:
- A. stop taking the sertraline now.
- B. continue taking the antidepressant.
- C. change to a different antidepressant.
- D. taper off the sertraline gradually.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because continuing sertraline is often safer than untreated depression, with psychiatric consultation. Choice A is incorrect (abrupt stopping risky). Choice C is wrong (changing not first step). Choice D is inaccurate (tapering not indicated without specialist input).
An example of a first-dose reaction that may occur includes:
- A. Orthostatic hypotension that does not occur with repeated doses
- B. Purple glove syndrome with phenytoin use
- C. Hemolytic anemia from ceftriaxone use
- D. Contact dermatitis from neomycin use
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is correct because orthostatic hypotension can occur with a first dose of drugs like antihypertensives, subsiding as the body adjusts, a classic first-dose reaction. Choice B is incorrect as purple glove syndrome is a rare phenytoin effect, not first-dose specific. Choice C is wrong because hemolytic anemia is a type II reaction, not first-dose. Choice D is incorrect since contact dermatitis is a delayed, not first-dose, reaction.
Signs of controlled substance misuse include:
- A. Requesting early refills
- B. Reporting lost prescriptions
- C. Using multiple prescribers
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Choice D is correct because early refills, lost prescription claims, and multiple prescribers are classic misuse signs, per DEA and clinical red flags. Choice A is incorrect alone as it's one sign. Choice B is wrong by itself because lost reports are just part. Choice C is incorrect solo since multiple prescribers is only one indicator.
A woman who is pregnant tells an NP that she has been taking sertraline for depression for several years but is worried about the effects of this drug on her fetus. The NP will consult with this patient's psychiatrist and will recommend that she:
- A. stop taking the sertraline now.
- B. continue taking the antidepressant.
- C. change to a different antidepressant.
- D. taper off the sertraline gradually.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because continuing sertraline is often safer than untreated depression, with psychiatric consultation. Choice A is incorrect (abrupt stopping risky). Choice C is wrong (changing not first step). Choice D is inaccurate (tapering not indicated without specialist input).
The parents of a 3-year-old child tell the primary care NP that their child is a very picky eater and they are worried about the child's nutrition. The NP should recommend:
- A. giving the child a daily multivitamin containing iron.
- B. providing small portions of a variety of foods at each meal.
- C. disciplining the child at mealtimes to ensure proper nutrition.
- D. making sure the child's cereals are fortified with vitamins and minerals.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because offering variety in small portions balances nutrition over time for picky eaters. Choice A is incorrect (multivitamin if variety fails). Choice C is wrong (discipline ineffective). Choice D is inaccurate (fortified cereal not enough).