Nokea
Drugs that require refrigeration include:
- A. Insulin
- B. Amoxicillin suspension
- C. Vaccines
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Choice D is correct because insulin (protein stability), amoxicillin suspension (post-reconstitution), and vaccines (biological potency) require refrigeration to maintain efficacy, per storage guidelines. Choice A is incorrect alone as it's one drug. Choice B is wrong by itself because amoxicillin is just part. Choice C is incorrect solo since vaccines are only one group.
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The point in time on the drug concentration curve that indicates the first sign of a therapeutic effect is the:
- A. Minimum adverse effect level
- B. Peak of action
- C. Onset of action
- D. Therapeutic range
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is correct because the onset of action is when a drug first shows a therapeutic effect on the concentration curve, marking the start of its clinical impact. Choice A is incorrect as ‘minimum adverse effect level' isn't a standard term; it confuses with toxicity thresholds. Choice B is wrong because peak of action is the maximum effect, not the first sign. Choice D is incorrect since therapeutic range is the concentration window for efficacy, not a specific time point.
A patient is taking drug A and drug B. The primary care NP notes increased effects of drug B. The NP should suspect that in this case drug A is a cytochrome P450 (CYP450) enzyme:
- A. inhibitor.
- B. substrate.
- C. inducer.
- D. metabolizer.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a CYP450 inhibitor (drug A) reduces metabolism of drug B, increasing its effects. Choice B is incorrect as a substrate is acted upon, not inhibiting. Choice C is wrong since an inducer increases metabolism, reducing effects. Choice D is inaccurate as 'metabolizer' isn’t a CYP450 role.
Schedule II drugs are characterized by:
- A. High potential for abuse
- B. Low potential for abuse
- C. No accepted medical use
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is correct because Schedule II drugs (e.g., oxycodone) have a high abuse potential with accepted medical use, per DEA rules. Choice B is incorrect as low potential is Schedule IV/V. Choice C is wrong because no medical use is Schedule I. Choice D is incorrect since only A applies.
The elderly are at high risk of ADRs due to:
- A. Having greater muscle mass than younger adults, leading to higher volume of distribution
- B. The extensive studies that have been conducted on drug safety in this age group
- C. The blood-brain barrier being less permeable, requiring higher doses to achieve therapeutic effect
- D. Age-related decrease in renal function
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Choice D is correct because an age-related decline in renal function slows drug excretion, increasing ADR risk as drugs accumulate. Choice A is incorrect as muscle mass decreases with age, not increases. Choice B is wrong because studies are often limited in the elderly, not extensive. Choice C is incorrect since the blood-brain barrier's permeability doesn't typically lessen, and higher doses aren't standard.
An NP is caring for a 70-year-old patient who reports having seasonal allergies with severe rhinorrhea. Using the Beers criteria, which of the following medications should the NP recommend for this patient?
- A. Loratadine (Claritin)
- B. Hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
- C. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
- D. Chlorpheniramine maleate (Chlorphen 12)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because loratadine is a nonsedating antihistamine, safer for elderly per Beers criteria, unlike the sedating options B, C, and D, which increase fall risk and cognitive impairment in older adults.