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During a home visit, the nurse should evaluate the adequacy of a client's COPD treatment by assessing for which primary symptom?
- A. Dyspnea
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Unilateral diminished breath sounds
- D. Edema of the ankles
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dyspnea. Dyspnea is a primary symptom of COPD due to impaired airflow. Assessing dyspnea helps determine the effectiveness of COPD treatment. Tachycardia (B) may occur but is not a primary symptom. Unilateral diminished breath sounds (C) suggest other conditions, not COPD. Edema of the ankles (D) is more indicative of heart failure.
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The nurse is providing an educational workshop about coronary artery disease (CAD) and its risk factors. The nurse explains to participants that CAD has many risk factors, some that can be controlled and some that cannot. What risk factors should the nurse list that can be controlled or modified?
- A. Gender, obesity, family history, and smoking
- B. Inactivity, stress, gender, and smoking
- C. Cholesterol levels, hypertension, and smoking
- D. Stress, family history, and obesity
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because cholesterol levels, hypertension, and smoking are modifiable risk factors for CAD. High cholesterol levels can be controlled through diet and medication. Hypertension can be managed through lifestyle changes and medication. Smoking is a behavior that can be modified.
A is incorrect because gender and family history are non-modifiable risk factors. Obesity can be controlled but is not listed in the correct answer.
B is incorrect because inactivity and stress are modifiable risk factors, but gender is not modifiable.
D is incorrect because stress and family history are non-modifiable risk factors, and obesity is not listed in the correct answer.
A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value indicates a therapeutic effect of the medication?
- A. INR of 2.5.
- B. PTT of 45 seconds.
- C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
- D. Platelet count of 150,000/mm³.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: INR of 2.5. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. A target INR range for DVT treatment is typically 2.0-3.0. An INR of 2.5 indicates that the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range, preventing excessive clotting while avoiding excessive bleeding.
B: PTT measures the effectiveness of heparin, not warfarin.
C: Hemoglobin level and D: Platelet count are not specific indicators of warfarin's therapeutic effect on clotting factors.
In summary, the correct answer A is the most relevant laboratory value for monitoring the therapeutic effect of warfarin in a client with DVT.
A healthcare professional is participating in the emergency care of a client who has just developed variceal bleeding. What intervention should the healthcare professional anticipate?
- A. Infusion of intravenous heparin
- B. IV administration of albumin
- C. STAT administration of vitamin K by the intramuscular route
- D. IV administration of octreotide
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: IV administration of octreotide. Octreotide is indicated for variceal bleeding as it reduces portal venous pressure, decreases blood flow to varices, and inhibits release of vasoactive substances. It helps control bleeding and stabilize the patient. Heparin (A) is not indicated for variceal bleeding. Albumin (B) may be used for volume resuscitation but does not address the bleeding. Vitamin K (C) is used for coagulation disorders, not variceal bleeding.
A 60-year-old man presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
- B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
- C. Diabetes insipidus
- D. Hyperthyroidism
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis for a 60-year-old man with fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, hyperglycemia, and ketonuria is Type 1 diabetes mellitus. The key clues are the presence of ketonuria, which indicates the body is breaking down fats for energy due to lack of insulin in Type 1 diabetes. Additionally, the acute onset of symptoms in an older individual suggests an autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells seen in Type 1 diabetes. Type 2 diabetes is less likely due to the acute presentation and ketonuria. Diabetes insipidus presents with polyuria but not hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Hyperthyroidism typically presents with symptoms such as weight loss, tremors, and heat intolerance, not the classic symptoms seen in this case.
A client with a newly created ileostomy has not had ostomy output for the past 12 hours and reports worsening nausea. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Facilitate a referral to the wound-ostomy-continence (WOC) nurse
- B. Report signs and symptoms of obstruction to the health care provider
- C. Encourage the client to mobilize to enhance mobility
- D. Contact the health care provider to obtain a swab of the stoma for culture
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Report signs and symptoms of obstruction to the health care provider. The priority action in this scenario is to address the possibility of an obstruction, which could be a life-threatening complication. Reporting to the healthcare provider allows for prompt assessment and intervention to prevent further complications. A: Referring to the WOC nurse may be necessary but is not the priority when obstruction is suspected. C: Encouraging mobilization is important for overall health but not the priority in this urgent situation. D: Obtaining a swab for culture is not the priority when obstruction is suspected.