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During a mental health assessment, a patient states, 'I just don't see the point in anything anymore.' This statement is an indication of which of the following?
- A. Anxiety disorder
- B. Bipolar disorder
- C. Depression
- D. Schizophrenia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The patient's statement 'I just don't see the point in anything anymore' reflects feelings of hopelessness and a lack of purpose, which are common symptoms of depression. Depression is characterized by persistent feelings of sadness, emptiness, and loss of interest or pleasure in activities that were once enjoyable. While anxiety disorders can involve excessive worry and fear, bipolar disorder includes episodes of both depression and mania, and schizophrenia typically involves symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions. Therefore, depression is the most appropriate choice based on the patient's statement.
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Which nursing response provides accurate information to discuss with the female patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder and her support system?
- A. Remember that alcohol and caffeine can trigger a relapse of your symptoms.
- B. Antidepressant therapy should be carefully monitored due to the risk of a manic episode in bipolar disorder.
- C. It's crucial to inform your healthcare provider promptly if you experience sleep disturbances.
- D. Are your family members prepared to play an active role in helping manage this disorder?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer as it emphasizes the importance of avoiding triggers like alcohol and caffeine that can lead to symptom relapse in patients with bipolar disorder. Educating the patient and their support system about these triggers is essential for managing the condition effectively and preventing exacerbations of symptoms. Choice B is incorrect as it overly focuses on antidepressant therapy, which is not the primary concern related to triggers for symptom relapse. Choice C, while important, does not directly address triggers for symptom relapse in bipolar disorder. Choice D is also relevant but does not provide immediate information on managing triggers for symptom relapse.
Which of the following interventions is most effective in managing a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?
- A. Encouraging the patient to engage in repetitive behaviors.
- B. Helping the patient to understand that their thoughts are irrational.
- C. Providing the patient with a structured daily routine.
- D. Allowing the patient to avoid situations that trigger their obsessions.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most effective intervention in managing a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is helping the patient to understand that their thoughts are irrational. This cognitive-behavioral approach can assist in reducing the frequency and intensity of obsessive thoughts and compulsive behaviors by challenging and reframing maladaptive beliefs and thought patterns associated with OCD. Encouraging the patient to engage in repetitive behaviors (choice A) reinforces the compulsive behavior rather than addressing the underlying issue. Providing a structured daily routine (choice C) may help in some cases but does not directly target the irrational thoughts and beliefs. Allowing the patient to avoid trigger situations (choice D) can provide temporary relief but does not address the core problem of irrational thoughts and behaviors.
Which of the following medications is commonly used to treat attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?
- A. Sertraline
- B. Diazepam
- C. Methylphenidate
- D. Clozapine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Methylphenidate is the correct answer. It is a stimulant medication commonly used to treat ADHD. Methylphenidate works by increasing the activity of certain chemicals in the brain that are involved in attention and impulse control. Sertraline is an antidepressant used for depression, anxiety, and other conditions, not ADHD. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine mainly prescribed for anxiety, muscle spasms, and seizures, not ADHD. Clozapine is an antipsychotic medication used for schizophrenia when other medications are ineffective, not for ADHD.
The nurse is providing medication education to a patient who has been prescribed lithium to stabilize mood. Which early signs and symptoms of toxicity should the nurse stress to the patient?
- A. Increased attentiveness
- B. Getting up at night to urinate
- C. Improved vision
- D. An upset stomach for no apparent reason
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct early sign of lithium toxicity that the nurse should stress to the patient is an upset stomach for no apparent reason. Early signs of lithium toxicity often manifest as gastrointestinal symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. This can serve as an important indicator for the patient to seek medical attention promptly to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Increased attentiveness, getting up at night to urinate, and improved vision are not early signs of lithium toxicity. It is crucial for the nurse to educate the patient on recognizing gastrointestinal symptoms as potential indicators of toxicity.
Which of the following is an example of a mood stabilizer used to treat bipolar disorder?
- A. Fluoxetine
- B. Lithium
- C. Haloperidol
- D. Lorazepam
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lithium is a widely recognized mood stabilizer used in the treatment of bipolar disorder. It helps to control mood swings, prevent manic episodes, and reduce the risk of suicidal behavior in individuals with bipolar disorder. Fluoxetine is an antidepressant, Haloperidol is an antipsychotic, and Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and insomnia, none of which are primary mood stabilizers for bipolar disorder.