Nokea
During a physical examination of an infant with Down syndrome, what anomaly should the healthcare provider assess the child for?
- A. Bulging fontanels
- B. Stiff lower extremities
- C. Abnormal heart sounds
- D. Unusual pupillary reactions
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Infants with Down syndrome are at increased risk of congenital heart defects. Therefore, assessing for abnormal heart sounds is crucial during the physical examination. Bulging fontanels are not typically associated with Down syndrome and may indicate increased intracranial pressure. Stiff lower extremities are not a common finding in Down syndrome and may suggest other musculoskeletal issues. Unusual pupillary reactions are not typically linked to Down syndrome and may be indicative of neurological problems instead.
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A nurse is planning an initial home care visit to a mother who gave birth to a high-risk infant. For what time of day should the nurse schedule the visit to be most productive?
- A. When the husband is out of the home.
- B. At a time when the mother is feeding the infant.
- C. At a time that is convenient for the family.
- D. When the nurse can spend time with the family.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Scheduling the visit at a time that is convenient for the family is crucial for ensuring the family's receptiveness and availability, making the visit more productive. Choosing a time when the mother is feeding the infant (choice B) may not necessarily align with the family's overall convenience and may disrupt the feeding routine. Similarly, scheduling the visit when the husband is out of the home (choice A) might not be optimal as it may exclude an important family member and potentially impact the support system. While spending time with the family (choice D) is important, the primary focus should be on accommodating the family's schedule to maximize the effectiveness of the visit.
Why is it recommended that closure of the palate should be done before the age of 2 for an 11-month-old infant with a cleft palate?
- A. "After the age of 2, surgery becomes frightening and should be avoided if possible."
- B. "The eruption of the 2-year molars often complicates the surgical procedure."
- C. "As your child grows older, the palate widens, making repair more challenging."
- D. "Surgery should be performed before your child begins to use faulty speech patterns."
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: It is recommended to perform palate closure surgery before the child starts using faulty speech patterns to prevent the development of speech issues that may be harder to correct later. Delaying surgery until after the age of 2 can lead to the child forming incorrect speech habits, which can be challenging to correct. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not address the specific concern related to speech development in children with cleft palates.
A 5-year-old child with a diagnosis of asthma is being evaluated for medication management. What is an important assessment for the nurse to perform?
- A. Assess the child's sleep patterns
- B. Assess the child's dietary intake
- C. Assess the child's academic performance
- D. Assess the child's behavior at home
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Assessing the child's dietary intake is crucial in managing asthma as certain foods can trigger symptoms or exacerbate the condition. Monitoring the child's diet can help identify triggers, ensure proper nutrition, and support the child's overall health. Assessing sleep patterns (Choice A) may be relevant but is not as directly linked to asthma management as dietary intake. Academic performance (Choice C) and behavior at home (Choice D) are important aspects of a child's well-being but are not directly related to asthma management.
A 12-month-old infant has become immunosuppressed during a course of chemotherapy. When preparing the parents for the infant's discharge, what information should the nurse give concerning the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) immunization?
- A. It should not be given until the infant reaches 2 years of age.
- B. Infants who are receiving chemotherapy should not be given these vaccines.
- C. It should be given to protect the infant from contracting any of these diseases.
- D. The parents should discuss this with their healthcare provider at the next visit.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Live vaccines, like the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine, should not be administered to immunosuppressed infants, such as those undergoing chemotherapy. The weakened immune system of these infants may not be able to handle live vaccines safely, potentially leading to severe complications. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid giving live vaccines like MMR to infants receiving chemotherapy. Choice A is incorrect as delaying the MMR vaccine until the infant reaches 2 years of age is not the main concern in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect because although MMR vaccination is important for disease prevention, it should not be given to immunosuppressed infants. Choice D is incorrect as immediate action is needed to prevent potential harm from live vaccines in immunosuppressed infants.
A nurse is caring for an infant with phenylketonuria (PKU). What diet should the nurse anticipate will be ordered by the health care provider?
- A. Fat-free
- B. Protein-enriched
- C. Phenylalanine-free
- D. Low-phenylalanine
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.