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During a skin assessment, a healthcare professional is observing a group of clients. Which of the following lesions should the healthcare professional identify as vesicles?
- A. Acne
- B. Warts
- C. Psoriasis
- D. Herpes simplex
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Vesicles are small fluid-filled blisters. Herpes simplex is an example of a vesicular lesion, characterized by small, fluid-filled blisters. Acne presents as comedones, papules, pustules, or nodules, not vesicles. Warts are caused by the human papillomavirus and appear as rough, raised growths. Psoriasis is a chronic autoimmune condition that results in red, scaly patches on the skin, not vesicles.
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A 10-year-old client is recovering from a splenectomy following a traumatic injury. The client's laboratory results show a hemoglobin of 9 g/dL and a hematocrit of 28 percent. The best approach for the nurse to use is to:
- A. Limit milk and milk products
- B. Encourage bed rest and quiet activities
- C. Plan nursing care around lengthy rest periods
- D. Promote a diet rich in iron
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Encouraging bed rest and quiet activities is crucial for a child recovering from a splenectomy with low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. This approach helps conserve energy, promotes healing, and allows the body to focus on rebuilding red blood cells. Limiting milk and milk products (Choice A) is not directly related to improving the child's condition. Encouraging bed rest and quiet activities (Choice B) is appropriate as it helps in conserving energy and preventing physical exertion. Promoting a diet rich in iron (Choice D) is beneficial for improving hemoglobin levels in the long term, but immediate rest and recovery take precedence in this scenario.
While being prepared for transport to the operating room, a client scheduled for hysterectomy informs the nurse that she no longer wants to have surgery. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Notify the provider about the client's decision
- B. Proceed with the transport
- C. Prepare the surgical site
- D. Document the client's statement
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to notify the provider about the client's decision. By informing the provider, they can discuss the client's change in decision, explore the reasons behind it, and determine the appropriate course of action. Proceeding with the transport (Choice B) without addressing the client's concerns would not respect the client's autonomy and right to make decisions about their own healthcare. Preparing the surgical site (Choice C) would be premature and inappropriate if the client no longer wishes to proceed with the surgery. While documenting the client's statement (Choice D) is important for documentation purposes, the immediate priority is to involve the provider in the decision-making process.
A client is scheduled for an IVP (Intravenous Pyelogram). Which of the following data from the client's history indicates a potential hazard for this test?
- A. Reflex incontinence
- B. Allergic to shellfish
- C. Claustrophobia
- D. Hypertension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'Allergic to shellfish.' An allergy to shellfish can indicate a sensitivity to iodine, which is used in the contrast dye for an IVP, posing a risk of an allergic reaction. Reflex incontinence (Choice A) is not directly related to the potential hazard of an IVP. Claustrophobia (Choice C) and hypertension (Choice D) are also not significant factors that indicate a potential hazard for an IVP.
A client is receiving teaching from a healthcare provider about reducing the adverse effects of immobility. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will perform ankle and knee exercises every hour - Range of motion (ROM) is needed to prevent contractures.
- B. I will hold my breath when rising from a sitting position.
- C. I will remove my antiembolic stockings while I am in bed.
- D. I will have my partner help me change positions every 4 hours.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is correct because performing ankle and knee exercises every hour helps prevent contractures and other adverse effects of immobility. Contractures are a common complication of immobility, and range of motion (ROM) exercises can help maintain joint flexibility and prevent contractures. This statement indicates an understanding of the teaching provided by the healthcare provider. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Holding the breath when rising from a sitting position can increase the risk of orthostatic hypotension, not reduce adverse effects of immobility. Removing antiembolic stockings while in bed can compromise their effectiveness in preventing deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is not a measure to reduce immobility-related complications. Having a partner help change positions every 4 hours may not be frequent enough to prevent immobility-related complications effectively; changing positions more frequently is usually recommended to prevent issues like pressure ulcers and muscle stiffness.
The nurse is evaluating client learning about a low-sodium diet. Selection of which meal would indicate to the LPN that this client understands the dietary restrictions?
- A. Tossed salad with low-sodium dressing, bacon, and tomato sandwich.
- B. New England clam chowder, unsalted crackers, fresh fruit salad.
- C. Skim milk, turkey salad, roll, and vanilla ice cream.
- D. Macaroni and cheese, diet Coke, and a slice of cherry pie.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Skim milk, turkey salad, roll, and vanilla ice cream. These items are low in sodium, making it a suitable meal for someone on a low-sodium diet. Skim milk, turkey salad, and vanilla ice cream are naturally low in sodium, while the roll can be selected as a low-sodium option. Choices A, B, and D contain items that are typically high in sodium, such as bacon, clam chowder, crackers, and cheese, making them unsuitable for a low-sodium diet.