During an abdominal assessment, a nurse finds pulsation between the umbilicus and pubis on a client. What finding should be reported to the physician?
- A. Concave, midline umbilicus
- B. Pulsation between the umbilicus and pubis
- C. Bowel sound frequency of 15 sounds per minute
- D. Absence of a bruit
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because pulsation between the umbilicus and pubis could indicate an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA), a serious condition that requires immediate medical attention. The pulsation in this area could be the enlargement of the aorta, which can be life-threatening if it ruptures. Reporting this finding to the physician is crucial for further evaluation and intervention.
Choice A (Concave, midline umbilicus) is incorrect because it is a normal finding during an abdominal assessment. Choice C (Bowel sound frequency of 15 sounds per minute) is incorrect as it falls within the normal range of bowel sounds. Choice D (Absence of a bruit) is also incorrect as the absence of a bruit is a normal finding and does not indicate any immediate concern.
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The nurse is caring for a client who underwent a subtotal gastrectomy. To manage dumping syndrome, the nurse should advise the client to:
- A. restrict fluid intake to 1 qt (1,000 ml)/day.
- B. drink liquids only with meals.
- C. don't drink liquids 2 hours before meals.
- D. drink liquids only between meals.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: drink liquids only between meals. This is because restricting fluids during meals can worsen dumping syndrome by rapidly emptying the stomach contents into the intestines, causing symptoms like cramping and diarrhea. By advising the client to drink liquids only between meals, it allows for better digestion and absorption of nutrients, reducing the risk of dumping syndrome.
Choice A is incorrect because restricting fluid intake can lead to dehydration and other complications. Choice B is incorrect as drinking liquids with meals can exacerbate dumping syndrome symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as not drinking liquids before meals may not effectively manage dumping syndrome and can lead to dehydration.
A nurse is giving dietary instructions to a client who has a new colostomy. The nurse encourages the client to eat foods representing which of the following diets for the first 4 to 6 weeks postoperatively?
- A. High-protein
- B. High-carbohydrate
- C. Low-calorie
- D. Low-residue
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Low-residue. After colostomy surgery, the bowel needs time to heal. A low-residue diet helps reduce the amount of undigested food passing through the colon, easing digestion and minimizing strain on the stoma. This diet typically includes easily digestible foods like white bread, rice, pasta, and well-cooked vegetables. High-protein (choice A) and high-carbohydrate (choice B) diets can be harder to digest and may cause discomfort. A low-calorie diet (choice C) is not necessary during the initial postoperative period when the focus should be on promoting healing and comfort.
A nurse is developing a teaching plan for the client with viral hepatitis. The nurse plans to tell the client which of the following in the teaching session?
- A. Activity should be limited to prevent fatigue
- B. The diet should be low in calories
- C. Meals should be large to conserve energy
- D. Alcohol intake should be limited to 2 oz. per day.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. For a client with viral hepatitis, limiting activity helps prevent fatigue and aids in recovery. Excessive activity can worsen symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because a low-calorie diet may not provide enough nutrients for the body to fight the infection. Choice C is incorrect as large meals can strain the liver and worsen symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as any alcohol intake can further damage the liver in viral hepatitis. In summary, choice A is correct as it promotes rest and aids recovery, while the other choices can potentially worsen the condition.
A client has a nasogastric tube inserted at the time of abdominal perineal resection with permanent colostomy. This tube will most likely be removed when the client demonstrates:
- A. Absence of nausea and vomiting.
- B. Passage of mucus from the rectum.
- C. Passage of flatus and feces from the colostomy.
- D. Absence of stomach drainage for 24 hours.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Passage of flatus and feces from the colostomy. This indicates that the gastrointestinal tract is functioning properly post-operatively. The nasogastric tube is typically removed once the client's bowel function has returned, as evidenced by the passage of flatus and feces from the colostomy. This indicates that the client's bowels are working and there is no longer a need for the tube to decompress the stomach. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the absence of nausea and vomiting, passage of mucus from the rectum, and absence of stomach drainage do not directly indicate the return of normal bowel function, which is the key factor for removing the nasogastric tube in this scenario.
Which of the following nursing measures would be inappropriate when caring for a client with a Cantor tube?
- A. Injecting 10 mL of air into the tube to facilitate drainage.
- B. Applying a water-soluble lubricant to the client's nares.
- C. Coiling extra tubing on the client's bed.
- D. Irrigating the tube with 50 mL of normal saline solution.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because irrigating the Cantor tube with normal saline solution is inappropriate. Cantor tubes are typically used for gastric decompression or feeding, and irrigating with normal saline can disrupt the balance of electrolytes in the stomach. Choice A is correct as injecting air helps facilitate drainage. Choice B is correct as lubricant aids in tube insertion. Choice C is incorrect as coiling tubing can cause kinks and hinder drainage.