Nokea
During an assessment on a client in congestive heart failure, what is most likely to be revealed upon auscultation of the heart?
- A. S3 ventricular gallop
- B. Apical click
- C. Systolic murmur
- D. Split S2
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: S3 ventricular gallop. An S3 sound is a common finding in congestive heart failure due to fluid overload in the heart. It is associated with decreased ventricular compliance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. An apical click is not typically associated with congestive heart failure. A systolic murmur may be heard in conditions like mitral regurgitation but is not specific to congestive heart failure. A split S2 is associated with conditions like pulmonary hypertension, not congestive heart failure.
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The health care provider order reads 'aspirate nasogastric feeding (NG) tube every 4 hours and check pH of aspirate.' The pH of the aspirate is 10. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Hold the tube feeding and notify the provider
- B. Administer the tube feeding as scheduled
- C. Irrigate the tube with diet cola soda
- D. Apply intermittent suction to the feeding tube
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A pH of 10 indicates improper placement of the NG tube, requiring notification of the provider and holding the feeding. Choice B is incorrect because administering the tube feeding could lead to complications due to the improper placement. Choice C is incorrect as irrigating the tube with diet cola soda is not a standard practice for addressing this issue. Choice D is incorrect as applying intermittent suction does not address the problem of improper placement indicated by the high pH level.
For a client with chronic kidney disease having a hemoglobin level of 8.0 g/dL, which intervention should the nurse perform first?
- A. Administer erythropoietin as ordered
- B. Monitor the client's blood pressure
- C. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation level
- D. Assess the client for signs of fatigue
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering erythropoietin is the priority intervention for a client with chronic kidney disease and a low hemoglobin level. Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production, helping to manage anemia in these clients. Monitoring blood pressure, oxygen saturation level, and assessing for signs of fatigue are important aspects of care but addressing the anemia by administering erythropoietin takes precedence to improve oxygen-carrying capacity and overall well-being.
Which of these findings would the nurse most closely associate with anemia in a 10-month-old infant?
- A. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL
- B. Pale mucosa of the eyelids and lips
- C. Hypoactivity
- D. A heart rate between 140 to 160
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Pale mucosa of the eyelids and lips is a classic sign of anemia in infants, indicating a lack of sufficient red blood cells. This finding is due to decreased hemoglobin levels, which causes reduced oxygen delivery to tissues. Choices A, C, and D are less specific to anemia in infants. While a hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL may be within the normal range for a 10-month-old infant, the presence of pale mucosa is a more indicative sign of anemia.
Which of these nursing diagnoses of 4 elderly clients would place 1 client at the greatest risk for falls?
- A. Sensory perceptual alterations related to decreased vision
- B. Alteration in mobility related to fatigue
- C. Impaired gas exchange related to retained secretions
- D. Altered patterns of urinary elimination related to nocturia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Altered patterns of urinary elimination related to nocturia. Nocturia increases the risk of falls in elderly clients due to frequent nighttime trips to the bathroom. Choice A is incorrect because while decreased vision can contribute to falls, nocturia poses a more direct risk. Choice B is incorrect as fatigue may affect mobility but is not as directly linked to falls as nocturia. Choice C is incorrect as impaired gas exchange is not typically associated with an increased risk of falls.
A client is being maintained on heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis. The nurse must closely monitor which of the following laboratory values?
- A. Bleeding time
- B. Platelet count
- C. Activated PTT
- D. Clotting time
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Activated PTT is the correct lab value to monitor for clients on heparin therapy. Activated PTT (partial thromboplastin time) helps assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy by measuring the time it takes for blood to clot. Monitoring activated PTT ensures that the client is within the therapeutic range of heparin to prevent both clotting and bleeding complications. Bleeding time (Choice A) and platelet count (Choice B) are not specific indicators of heparin therapy effectiveness. Clotting time (Choice D) is not as sensitive as activated PTT in monitoring heparin therapy.