Nokea
During an assessment, the nurse decides to assess a patient’s calcium level. Which action will the nurse take to identify a low calcium level?
- A. Palpate turgor of skin
- B. Observe the color of the skin
- C. Conduct a Trousseau’s sign test
- D. Save urine to measure 17-ketosteroids
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Trousseau’s sign test is used to identify low calcium levels in a patient. This test involves inflating a blood pressure cuff on the patient's arm above systolic pressure for a few minutes, which can trigger a carpal spasm (wrist and hand flexion) in patients with low calcium levels (hypocalcemia). This is due to increased neuromuscular irritability caused by low calcium levels. Therefore, conducting a Trousseau’s sign test is the appropriate action to identify a low calcium level in a patient. Palpating turgor of skin, observing the color of the skin, and saving urine to measure 17-ketosteroids are not relevant actions for assessing calcium levels.
You may also like to solve these questions
A client with sepsis has a temperature of 40°C. Which dysrhythmia is most likely to occur in this client?
- A. Bradydysrhythmia
- B. Tachydysrhythmia
- C. Wolff-Parkinson-White dysrhythmia
- D. Long QT dysrhythmia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A client with sepsis and a temperature of 40°C is likely experiencing a systemic inflammatory response, which can lead to a variety of dysrhythmias. In this case, the client is more likely to develop a tachydysrhythmia (fast heart rate) due to the body's response to the infection. Sepsis can result in an increase in heart rate as the body tries to maintain adequate perfusion to vital organs in response to the inflammatory process. Tachydysrhythmias such as supraventricular tachycardia or atrial fibrillation are commonly observed in septic patients with high fevers.
The nurse is caring for a client admitted to the hospital with lower extremity edema and shortness of breath. Which electrocardiogram finding indicates the client is at risk for an alteration in perfusion?
- A. P wave smooth and round
- B. Absent U wave
- C. PR interval 0.30 seconds
- D. ST segment isoelectric
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: An isoelectric ST segment on an electrocardiogram can indicate myocardial ischemia or injury, which can lead to a decrease in perfusion to the heart muscle. This finding suggests an increased risk of inadequate blood flow to the heart, potentially resulting in further complications such as a myocardial infarction or altered perfusion to other organs. In a client with lower extremity edema and shortness of breath, identifying this ECG finding is crucial for early intervention and monitoring to prevent further deterioration in perfusion status.
After being diagnosed with polycystic kidney disease, an adult patient asks if current children are at risk for developing the disorder. How should the nurse respond?
- A. The adult form of this disorder is rare and should not affect grown children
- B. The children should undergo genetic testing and screening for evidence of the disease
- C. Because the condition was just diagnosed, there is no risk of passing the condition on to any children
- D. The children would have developed symptoms of the disorder in utero or shortly after birth if they had inherited the defective gene
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Polycystic kidney disease (PKD) is a genetic disorder that can be inherited by children if one or both parents have the gene mutation responsible for the condition. In cases where a parent has been diagnosed with PKD, their children are at risk of inheriting the faulty gene. As such, it is recommended for the children to undergo genetic testing and screening to identify any evidence of the disease early on. By identifying the gene mutation in the children, appropriate monitoring and management can be initiated, potentially leading to better outcomes and quality of life for the affected individuals. Therefore, genetic testing and screening are crucial in cases where there is a known genetic component to a disorder like PKD.
A client is prescribed enalapril (Vasotec) for treatment of heart failure. Which adverse effect should the nurse assess for following the initial administration of this drug?
- A. Jaundice
- B. Ototoxicity
- C. Low blood pressure
- D. Blurred vision
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor commonly used in the treatment of heart failure. One of the potential adverse effects of ACE inhibitors, including enalapril, is hypotension or low blood pressure. This is especially a concern following the initial administration of the drug, as it can cause a significant drop in blood pressure. Nurses should assess the patient for signs and symptoms of hypotension, such as dizziness, light-headedness, weakness, or fainting, after starting enalapril therapy. Monitoring blood pressure regularly and educating the patient about the possibility of low blood pressure is important to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes.
A nurse is caring for a client who was involved in a motor vehicle accident and has lost approximately 1,550 mL of blood. The nurse should recognize that the client's shock will be classified as:
- A. Class I
- B. Class II
- C. Class III
- D. Class IV
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Class III hemorrhagic shock typically involves the loss of 1,500-2,000 mL of blood, which aligns closely with the approximately 1,550 mL of blood lost by the client in this scenario. Class III shock is considered severe and can lead to significant physiological consequences, including decreased blood pressure, increased heart rate, altered mental status, and potential organ dysfunction. Therefore, based on the amount of blood loss and severity of symptoms, the client's shock would be classified as Class III.