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During assessment, what is a nurse monitoring when assessing body alignment?
- A. The relationship of one body part to another in different positions
- B. The coordination between musculoskeletal and nervous systems
- C. The force opposing movement direction
- D. The ability to move freely
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a nurse assesses body alignment, they are observing the relationship of one body part to another in various positions. This involves evaluating the positioning of joints, tendons, ligaments, and muscles while a person is standing, sitting, or lying down. Choice B is incorrect because it refers more to the coordination between the musculoskeletal and nervous systems, which is not specifically related to body alignment assessment. Choice C is incorrect as it describes the force opposing movement rather than body alignment. Choice D is incorrect as it defines the ability to move freely, which is not directly related to monitoring body alignment.
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A group of newly licensed nurses is being taught about the Braden Scale by a nurse. Which of the following responses by a newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. "The client's age is not a factor in the measurement."
- B. "The scale measures six elements."
- C. "A lower score indicates a higher risk of pressure ulcers."
- D. "Each element is scored on a range from 1 to 4 points."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because the Braden Scale measures six elements: Sensory Perception, Moisture, Activity, Mobility, Nutrition, Friction, and Shear. The other choices are incorrect because: Choice A states that the client's age is not a factor in the measurement, which is accurate as age is not included in the Braden Scale. Choice C incorrectly states that a lower score indicates a higher risk of pressure ulcers, which is the opposite of how the Braden Scale works. Choice D inaccurately describes the scoring range of each element on the Braden Scale, which is not from 1 to 4 points but rather from 1 to 3.
To ensure the safety of a client receiving a continuous intravenous normal saline infusion, how often should the LPN change the administration set?
- A. Every 4 to 8 hours
- B. Every 12 to 24 hours
- C. Every 24 to 48 hours
- D. Every 72 to 96 hours
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to change the administration set every 72 to 96 hours. This practice helps reduce the risk of infection by preventing the build-up of bacteria in the tubing. Changing the set too frequently (choices A, B, and C) may increase the chances of contamination and infection without providing additional benefits. Therefore, the LPN should follow the guideline of changing the administration set every 72 to 96 hours to maintain the client's safety during the continuous intravenous normal saline infusion.
A client is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram. Which of the following actions is appropriate for the nurse to include?
- A. Monitor the client for pain in the suprapubic region.
- B. Ensure the client is free of metal objects.
- C. Administer 240 mL (8 oz) of oral contrast before the procedure.
- D. Assist the client with a bowel cleansing.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to include before an intravenous pyelogram is ensuring the client is free of metal objects. Metal objects can interfere with the imaging procedure and may need to be removed to prevent artifacts. Monitoring for pain in the suprapubic region (choice A) is not directly related to the procedure and is not a standard pre-procedure action. Administering oral contrast (choice C) is more common for other imaging studies like a CT scan, not an intravenous pyelogram. Assisting with a bowel cleansing (choice D) is not typically required before an intravenous pyelogram.
A mother of a child with a neural tube defect asks the nurse what she can do to decrease the chances of having another baby with a neural tube defect. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. Folic acid should be taken before and after conception.
- B. Multivitamin supplements are recommended during pregnancy.
- C. A well-balanced diet promotes normal fetal development.
- D. Increased dietary iron improves the health of mother and fetus.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Folic acid should be taken before and after conception.' Folic acid supplementation before and during early pregnancy has been shown to significantly reduce the risk of neural tube defects. Choice B is incorrect because while multivitamin supplements are beneficial during pregnancy, the specific focus for preventing neural tube defects is on folic acid. Choice C is a general statement about a well-balanced diet and does not specifically address neural tube defects. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on dietary iron, which is important for overall health but not specifically proven to prevent neural tube defects.
When explaining the procedure for collecting a 24-hour urine specimen for creatinine clearance to an older adult male, what should the nurse do next?
- A. Assess the client for confusion and reteach the procedure
- B. Check the urine for color and texture
- C. Empty the urinal contents into the 24-hour collection container
- D. Discard the contents of the urinal
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct next step for the nurse is to assess the client for confusion and reteach the procedure. This is crucial to ensure that the older adult male understands the process correctly, reducing the likelihood of errors in collecting the 24-hour urine specimen for creatinine clearance. Checking the urine for color and texture (Choice B) is not the immediate next step as the focus should be on patient understanding first. Emptying the urinal contents into the 24-hour collection container (Choice C) assumes prior knowledge on the client's part and skips the critical step of ensuring comprehension. Discarding the contents of the urinal (Choice D) is incorrect and wasteful since the urine is necessary for the 24-hour collection process.